Q1. The correct sequence of the following planets in terms of gravity, in the descending order is:
(a) Saturn, Earth, Neptune, Uranus
(b) Neptune, Uranus, Saturn, Earth
(c) Uranus, Earth, Saturn, Neptune
(d) Earth, Uranus, Neptune, Saturn
Q2. The orbits of planets around the Sun, or of satellites around the Earth, can be
(a) circular and elliptic
(b) circular and hyperbolic
(c) elliptic and parabolic
(d) parabolic and hyperbolic
Q3. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Milky Way?
It is a spiral galaxy.
The solar system resides in one of its spiral arms.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q4. Which one among the following statements is correct with regard to the C-5M Super Galaxy?
(a) It is a large military helicopter
(b) It is a large military transport aircraft
(c) It is a galaxy of stars very close to the Sun
(d) It is a US fighter aircraft to be completed in 2014
Q5. What is the difference between asteroids and comets?
Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while comets are formed of frozen gases held together by rocky and metallic material.
Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while comets are found mostly between Venus and Mercury.
Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while asteroids do not.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) Only 3
(d) All of these
Q6. “Give me blood, I will give you freedom.” These words are attributed to
(a) Khudiram Bose
(b) Bhagat Singh
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) V.D. Savarkar
Q7. Swarajya was declared as the goal of the Congress at its session held in 1906 at
(a) Bombay
(b) Calcutta
(c) Lucknow
(d) Madras
Q8. Who coined the slogan ‘Jai Jawan Jai Kisan’?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(d) Sardar Patel
Q9. In the history of the freedom movement of India, the year 1930 is associated with
(a) Partition of Bengal
(b) Dandi March
(c) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(d) Chauri Chaura incident
Q10. Who among the following was not the member of the Cabinet Mission which visited India in 1946?
(a) Sir Stafford Cripps
(b) Lord Mountbatten
(c) A.V. Alexander
(d) Lord Pethick Lawrence
Q11. The largest ocean is
(a) Atlantic Ocean
(b) Indian Ocean
(c) Arctic Ocean
(d) Pacific Ocean
Q12. Dead Sea is situated in which one of the following?
(a) A Rift valley
(b) An Intermontane Plateau
(c) Intermontane Plains
(d) Canyons
Q13. The oldest type of energy known to man is
(a) Wind power
(b) Solar power
(c) Tidal power
(d) Geothermal energy
Q14. The ‘Dark continent’ is
(a) Africa
(b) South America
(c) Australia
(d) Asia
Q15. The largest producer of gold in the world is
(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(c) Russia
(d) South Africa
Q16. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Indonesia / Jakarta
(b) Maldives / Male
(c) North Korea / Seoul
(d) Zimbabwe / Harare
Q17. Which of the following states is a member of the ‘Seven Sisters’?
(a) Paschim Banga
(b) Tripura
(c) Bihar
(d) Odisha
Q18. Which part of the Constitution incorporates special provisions with regard to the state of Jammu and Kashmir?
(a) Part VI
(b) Part IX
(c) Part XI
(d) Part XXI
Q19. Match the following:
A. Part I
B. Part III
C. Part IX
D. Part II
i. Fundamental Rights
ii. Panchayati Raj
iii. Citizenship
iv. The Union and its Territory
Options:
(a) A–iv, B–ii, C–iii, D–i
(b) A–iii, B–i, C–ii, D–iv
(c) A–ii, B–iv, C–i, D–iii
(d) A–iv, B–i, C–ii, D–iii
Q20. National emergency has been declared so far
(a) once
(b) twice
(c) thrice
(d) four times
Q21. Under which Article of the Constitution is the President's rule promulgated on any state in India?
(a) 356
(b) 352
(c) 360
(d) 370
Q22. A proclamation of emergency issued under Article 352 must be approved by the Parliament within
(a) 1 month
(b) 6 weeks
(c) 2 months
(d) 3 months
Q23. Who administers the oath of office to the President?
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Vice President
Q24. Water is a compound because
(a) it exists as a solid, a liquid or a gas
(b) it contains hydrogen and oxygen
(c) it contains two different elements joined by chemical bonds
(d) it cannot be split up into simpler substances by chemical means
Q25. Sugar can be separated from its aqueous solution by
(a) crystallization
(b) filtration
(c) distillation
(d) boiling
Q26. Allotropic forms of an element
(a) have same chemical properties but different physical properties
(b) have same physical properties
(c) have same chemical properties
(d) have different chemical properties
Q27. Which of the following is a compound?
(a) Milk
(b) Gold
(c) Coal
(d) Water
Q28. Which of the following substance is not pure?
(a) Element
(b) Compound
(c) Mixture
(d) Matter
Q29. Water gas is mixture of
(a) H₂ + N₂
(b) CO + H₂
(c) CO₂ + H₂
(d) CO + N₂
Q30. The value of ‘g’ is zero at
(a) surface of the earth
(b) centre of the earth
(c) in the Indian Ocean
(d) on Mount Everest
Q31. At a given temperature the speed of sound in moist air as compared to that in dry air is
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) sound does not travel through moist air
Q32. The weight of a body is
(a) the force with which it is attracted to the earth
(b) mass
(c) force
(d) momentum
Q33. A jet engine works on the principle of
(a) conservation of mass
(b) conservation of energy
(c) conservation of linear momentum
(d) conservation of angular momentum
Q34. Newton's law of gravitation is universal because
(a) it is always attractive
(b) it is not affected by the medium
(c) it acts on all masses at any distance
(d) All of the above
Q35. The weight of a body is lesser at the surface of the moon than on the earth, because
(a) moon has no atmosphere
(b) moon has less mass
(c) acceleration due to gravity on the moon is less
(d) the value of g is less on moon
Q36. The use of sunflower oil is recommended by doctors because it is
(a) rich in saturated fatty acid
(b) rich in unsaturated fatty acid
(c) good for reducing weight
(d) rich source of energy
Q37. The cell wall of green plant is made up of
(a) cellulose
(b) glucose
(c) chitin
(d) None of these
Q38. Protein found in the antibodies of blood are
(a) globulins
(b) albumins
(c) glutelins
(d) nuclein
Q39. The structural protein found in animal is
(a) keratin
(b) collagen
(c) albumin
(d) thrombin
Q40. Cellulose is made up of
(a) β-glucose units
(b) D-glucose units
(c) L-fructose units
(d) None of these
Q41. The largest cell is
(a) bacteria
(b) virus
(c) ostrich egg
(d) nerve cell
Q42. The following persons came to India at one time or another:
Fa-Hien
I-Tsing
Megasthenese
Hieun-Tsang
The correct chronological sequence of their visits is:
(a) 3, 1, 2, 4
(b) 3, 1, 4, 2
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4
(d) 1, 3, 4, 2
Q43. Which one of the following was initially the most powerful city state of India in the 6th century B.C.?
(a) Gandhar
(b) Kamboj
(c) Kashi
(d) Magadh
Q44. The Indo-Laws Kingdom set up in north Afghanistan in the beginning of the second century B.C. was:
(a) Bactria
(b) Scythia
(c) Zedrasia
(d) Aria
Q45. The term ‘Aryan’ denotes:
(a) an ethnic group
(b) a nomadic people
(c) a speech group
(d) a superior race
Q46. Which one of the following ports handled the North Indian trade during the Gupta period?
(a) Tamralipti
(b) Broach
(c) Kalyan
(d) Cambray
Q47. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Year)
A. 1775
B. 1780
C. 1824
D. 1838
List-II (Event)
First Anglo-Burmese War
First Anglo-Afghan War
First Anglo-Maratha War
Second Anglo-Mysore War
Codes:
(a) A–4; B–3; C–2; D–1
(b) A–4; B–3; C–1; D–2
(c) A–3; B–4; C–1; D–2
(d) A–3; B–4; C–2; D–1
Q48. The last major extension of British Indian territory took place during the time of:
(a) Dufferin
(b) Dalhousie
(c) Lytton
(d) Curzon
Q49. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Goa attained full statehood in 1987.
(b) Diu is an island in the Gulf of Khambhat.
(c) Daman and Diu were separated from Goa by the 56th Amendment of the Constitution of India.
(d) Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under French colonial rule till 1954.
Q50. Who among the following Indian rulers established embassies in foreign countries on modern lines?
(a) Haider Ali
(b) Mir Qasim
(c) Shah Alam II
(d) Tipu Sultan
Q51. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) India’s first technicolour film – Jhansi ki Rani
(b) India’s first 3-D film – My dear Kuttichathan
(c) India’s first insured film – Taal
(d) India’s first actress to win the Bharat Ratna – Meena Kumari
Q52. Who among the following leaders did not believe in the drain theory of Dadabhai Naoroji?
(a) B.G. Tilak
(b) R.C. Dutt
(c) M.G. Ranade
(d) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
Q53. B.R. Ambedkar was elected to the Constituent Assembly from:
(a) West Bengal
(b) Bombay President
(c) Madhya Bharat
(d) Punjab
Q54. The Anarchical and Revolutionary Crime Act (1919) was popularly known as the:
(a) Rowlatt Act
(b) Pitt's India Act
(c) Indian Arms Act
(d) Ilbert Bill
Q55. The meeting of Indian and British political leaders during 1930–32 in London has often been referred to as the First, Second and Third Round Table Conferences. It would be incorrect to refer to them as such because:
(a) the Indian National Congress did not take part in two of them
(b) Indian parties other than the Indian National Congress, participating in the conference represented sectional interests and not the whole of India
(c) the British Labour Party had withdrawn from the conference thereby making the proceeding of the conference partisan
(d) It was an instance of a conference held in three sessions and not that of three separate conferences
Q56. Who among the following was a prominent leader of the Congress Socialist Party?
(a) M.N. Roy
(b) Ganesh Shankar Vidyarthi
(c) Pattam Thanu Pillai
(d) Acharya Narendra Dev
Q57. Which one of the following weather conditions is indicated by a sudden fall in barometer reading?
(a) Stormy
(b) Calm weather
(c) Cold and dry weather
(d) Hot and sunny weather
Q58. Who amongst the following was the first to state that the earth was spherical?
(a) Aristotle
(b) Copernicus
(c) Ptolemy
(d) Strabo
Q59. If the stars are seen to rise perpendicular to the horizon by an observer, he is located on the:
(a) Equator
(b) Tropic of Cancer
(c) South Pole
(d) North Pole
Q60. Consider the following statements made about sedimentary rocks:
Sedimentary rocks are formed at earth's surface by the hydrological system
Formation of sedimentary rocks involves the weathering of preexisting rocks
Sedimentary rocks contain fossils
Sedimentary rocks typically occur in layers
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q61. Volcanic eruptions do not occur in:
(a) Baltic Sea
(b) Black Sea
(c) Caribbean Sea
(d) Caspian Sea
Q62. Quartzite is metamorphosed from:
(a) limestone
(b) obsidian
(c) sandstone
(d) shale
Q63. The waterfall ‘Victoria’ is associated with the river:
(a) Amazon
(b) Missouri
(c) St. Lawrence
(d) Zambezi
Q64. Life expectancy is the highest in the world in:
(a) Canada
(b) Germany
(c) Japan
(d) Norway
Consider the following statements:
In Macedonia, ethnic Albanians are in a minority
In Kosovo, Serbians are in a majority
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q65. Israel has common borders with:
(a) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt
(b) Lebanon, Syria, Turkey and Jordan
(c) Cyprus, Turkey, Jordan and Egypt
(d) Turkey, Syria, Iraq and Yemen
Q66. Which among the following countries has the largest population?
(a) Indonesia
(b) Japan
(c) Pakistan
(d) Sudan
Q67. Which one of the following countries is land locked?
(a) Bolivia
(b) Peru
(c) Surinam
(d) Uruguay
Q68. Which amongst the following States has the highest population density as per Census-2001?
(a) Kerala
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) West Bengal
Q69. Nanda Devi peak forms a part of:
(a) Assam Himalayas
(b) Kumaon Himalayas
(c) Nepal Himalayas
(d) Punjab Himalayas
Q70. Among the following cities, which one has the highest altitude above mean sea level?
(a) Bangalore
(b) Delhi
(c) Jodhpur
(d) Nagpur
Q71. Consider the following statements:
Longitude of Jabalpur's location is between those of Indore and Bhopal.
Latitude of Aurangabad's location is between those of Vadodara and Pune.
Bangalore is situated more southward than Chennai.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q72. Which one among the following states is smallest in area?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Gujarat
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu
Q73. The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of the State Policy in the Indian Constitution is to establish:
(a) political democracy
(b) social democracy
(c) Gandhian democracy
(d) social and economic democracy
Q74. Which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of the State Policy deals with the promotion of international peace and security?
(a) 51
(b) 48A
(c) 43A
(d) 41
Q75. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by:
(a) First Amendment
(b) Eighth Amendment
(c) Ninth Amendment
(d) Forty Second Amendment
Q76. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his assent to the ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes (in the year 2002)?
(a) Article 121
(b) Article 122
(c) Article 123
(d) Article 124
Q77. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President make a reference to the Supreme Court to seek the Court’s opinion on the Constitutional validity of the Election Commission’s decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly Elections (in the year 2002)?
(a) Article 142
(b) Article 143
(c) Article 144
(d) Article 145
Q78. Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:
He is appointed by the President of India
He must have the same qualifications as are required for a judge of the Supreme Court
He must be a member of either House of Parliament
He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Q79. The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to:
(a) distribution of revenue between the Centre and the States
(b) prepare the Annual Budget
(c) advise the President on financial matters
(d) allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and State Governments
Q80. The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties:
(a) with the consent of all the States
(b) with the consent of the majority of States
(c) with the consent of the States concerned
(d) without the consent of any State
Q81. The state which has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha is:
(a) Bihar
(b) Gujarat
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Q82. Consider the following functionaries:
Cabinet Secretary
Chief Election Commissioner
Union Cabinet Minister
Chief Justice of India
Their correct sequence in the Order of Precedence is:
(a) 3, 4, 2, 1
(b) 4, 3, 1, 2
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1
(d) 3, 4, 1, 2
Q83. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within:
(a) 1 month
(b) 3 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 1 year
Q84. In India, the first Municipal Corporation was set up in which one among the following?
(a) Calcutta
(b) Madras
(c) Bombay
(d) Delhi
Q85. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following?
Constitution of District Planning Committees
State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections
Establishment of State Finance Commission
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q86. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?
Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas
Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce
Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q87. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?
(a) State Forest Department
(b) District Collector / Deputy Commissioner
(c) Tahsildar / Block Development Officer / Mandal Revenue Officer
(d) Gram Sabha
Q88. Which of the following measures would result in an increase in the money supply in the economy?
Purchase of government securities from the public by the Central Bank
Deposit of currency in commercial banks by the public
Borrowing by the government from the Central Bank
Sale of government securities to the public by the Central Bank
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Q89. Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment in India?
Subsidiaries of foreign companies in India
Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies
Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies
Portfolio investment
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Q90. Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
The Prime Minister
The Chairman, Finance Commission
Ministers of the Union Cabinet
Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q91. To obtain full benefits of demographic dividend, what should India do?
(a) Promoting skill development
(b) Introducing more social security schemes
(c) Reducing infant mortality rate
(d) Privatization of higher education
Q92. A rise in general level of prices may be caused by:
an increase in the money supply
a decrease in the aggregate level of output
an increase in the effective demand
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
PASSAGE 6
I keep a journal and write in it fairly regularly. I get a lot of my poems out of it. It's like the raw material for my poems. Sometimes I'm blessed with a poem that comes in the form of a poem, but other times I've worked for two years on a poem before it becomes itself.
In other words, I mean that the feeling, the truth that my poem is anchored in is somehow not clearly clarified inside of me and as a result it lacks something. Then, it has to be re-felt. Then there's the other process which is easier. The poem is itself, but it has rough edges that need to be refined. That kind of revision involves picking the image that is more potent or tailoring it so that it carries the feeling. That's an easier kind of pruning and re-feeling.
Q93. From where could this account have been taken?
(a) A journal
(b) A newspaper
(c) An interview
(d) An essay
Q94. Lorde is probably a
(a) poet
(b) novelist
(c) dramatist
(d) painter
Q95. The person named Lorde in the passage writes in a journal
(a) very regularly
(b) rarely
(c) all the time
(d) fairly regularly
Q96. Another word in the second paragraph that means ‘rewriting’ is
(a) re-feeling
(b) recognizing
(c) picking
(d) revising
Q97. Which country successfully hosted the ICC Cricket World Cup 2023?
(a) Australia
(b) England
(c) India
(d) South Africa
Q98. The G20 Summit 2023 was held in which city of India?
(a) Mumbai
(b) New Delhi
(c) Bengaluru
(d) Hyderabad
Q99. Which mission marked India’s first successful landing near the Moon’s south pole?
(a) Chandrayaan-2
(b) Chandrayaan-3
(c) Mangalyaan
(d) Aditya-L1
Q100. Who is the current Chief Justice of India (2025)?
(a) D.Y. Chandrachud
(b) Sanjiv Khanna
(c) N.V. Ramana
(d) U.U. Lalit
Answers:
Q.1 – d
Q.2 – a
Q.3 – c
Q.4 – b
Q.5 – b
Q.6 – c
Q.7 – b
Q.8 – c
Q.9 – b
Q.10 – b
Q.11 – d
Q.12 – a
Q.13 – d
Q.14 – a
Q.15 – a
Q.16 – c
Q.17 – b
Q.18 – d
Q.19 – d
Q.20 – c
Q.21 – a
Q.22 – a
Q.23 – a
Q.24 – c
Q.25 – a
Q.26 – a
Q.27 – d
Q.28 – b
Q.29 – c
Q.30 – b
Q.31 – b
Q.32 – a
Q.33 – c
Q.34 – d
Q.35 – d
Q.36 – b
Q.37 – a
Q.38 – a
Q.39 – a
Q.40 – a
Q.41 – d
Q.42 – b
Q.43 – d
Q.44 – a
Q.45 – c
Q.46 – a
Q.47 – c
Q.48 – b
Q.49 – d
Q.50 – d
Q.51 –d
Q.52 –d
Q.53 –a
Q.54 –a
Q.55 –d
Q.56 –d
Q.57 –a
Q.58 –a
Q.59 –a
Q.60 –d
Q.61 –a
Q.62 –c
Q.63 –d
Q.64 –c
Q.65 –a
Q.66 –a
Q.67 –a
Q.68 –d
Q.69 –b
Q.70 –a
Q.71 –c
Q.72 –d
Q.73 –d
Q.74 –a
Q.75 –a
Q.76 –c
Q.77 –b
Q.78 –a
Q.79 –c
Q.80 –d
Q.81 –d
Q.82 –c
Q.83 –c
Q.84 –b
Q.85 –c
Q.86 –b
Q.87 –d
Q.88 –c
Q.89 –d
Q.90 –b
Q.91 –a
Q.92 –d
Q.93 –a
Q.94 –a
Q.95 –d
Q.96 –d
Q.97 –c
Q.98 –b
Q.99 –b
Q.100 –b