Q1. Which of the following revolutionary leaders organised an attack on the armoury of Chittagong?
(a) Jatin Das
(b) Chandrashekhar Azad
(c) C. R. Das
(d) Surya Sen
Q2. General Dyer who was responsible for Jallianwala Bagh massacre was shot dead by
(a) Sohan Singh Bhakna
(b) W. S. Iyer
(c) Hasrat Mohani
(d) Udham Singh
Q3. When Mahatma Gandhi set out on the Dandi March, he was accompanied, among others, by
(a) Vallabhbhai Patel and Sarojini Naidu
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru and Sarojini Naidu
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru and Rajendra Prasad
(d) Rajendra Prasad and Sarojini Naidu
Q4. The word Adivasi was used for the first time to refer to the tribal people by
(a) B. R. Ambedkar
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jyotiba Phule
(d) Thakkar Bappa
Q5. Who was the leading personality in Delhi Conspiracy Case in which a bomb thrown at a procession of Lord Hardinge taken out in Chandni Chowk on 23 Dec., 1913, killed the ADC of the Viceroy?
(a) Madan Lal Dhingra
(b) Ras Behari Bose
(c) V. D. Savarkar
(d) Birendra Kumar Ghosh
Q6. Which of the planet is nearest to the Earth?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Venus
(c) Mercury
(d) Mars
Q7. A black hole is a
(a) Contracted star with intense gravitational pull
(b) Star with very low surface temperature
(c) Star with no atmosphere
(d) Pulsating star
Q8. Consider the following statements:
The albedo of an object determines its visual brightness when viewed with reflected light.
The albedo of Mercury is much greater than the albedo of the Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q9. The distance between the Earth and the Sun (in million km) is
(a) 111
(b) 149
(c) 168
(d) 193
Q10. We observe twinkling of stars due to
(a) Frequent and periodic fluctuations in temperature of the star surface
(b) Constant change of refractive index of the medium between the stars and the Earth because of temperature variation
(c) Large distance of stars from the Earth
(d) Nuclear reactions taking place inside the stars
Q11. Who among the following enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minister of the Indian Union?
(a) Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha
(b) Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission
(c) Secretary to the Government of India
(d) None of the above
Q12. If the President wants to resign from office, he may do so by writing to the
(a) Vice-President
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Q13. The minimum age required for becoming the Prime Minister of India is
(a) 25 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 40 years
(d) 35 years
Q14. The President of India is
(a) Commander-in-Chief of Defence Forces
(b) Supreme Commander of Armed Forces
(c) Head of the Government
(d) Supreme Commander of Defence Forces of the Union and Executive Head of the Union
Q15. Minimum age required to contest for Presidentship is
(a) 30 years
(b) 35 years
(c) 25 years
(d) 21 years
Q16. Who is the author of the autobiography ‘The Indian Struggle’?
(a) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose
Q17. Where was the first iron and steel industry of India established?
(a) Bhadravati
(b) Bhilai
(c) Jamshedpur
(d) Burnpur
Q18. The deepest ocean in the world is
(a) The Indian Ocean
(b) The Atlantic Ocean
(c) The Pacific Ocean
(d) None of these
Q19. Which of the following is the longest river in the world?
(a) Amazon
(b) Nile
(c) Mississippi
(d) Danube
Q20. Who among the following is the world’s first woman cosmonaut?
(a) Bachendri Pal
(b) Junko Tabei
(c) Valentina Tereshkova
(d) Sally Ride
Q21. Chandigarh was designed by
(a) Le Corbusier
(b) Edward Lutyens
(c) Christopher Wren
(d) Michelangelo
Q22. Normal atmospheric pressure is
(a) 760 mm
(b) 75 mm
(c) 72 cm
(d) 73 cm
Q23. Standard atmospheric temperature is
(a) 4°C
(b) 0°C
(c) 10°C
(d) 20°C
Q24. The atomic weight of an atom is due to
(a) protons
(b) neutrons
(c) protons and neutrons
(d) electrons and protons
Q25. A proton is identical with
(a) an ionised hydrogen molecule
(b) the nucleus of hydrogen atom
(c) the nucleus of light gas
(d) the nucleus of a heavy gas
Q26. “Chemical properties are periodic function of atomic number”. This is true because of
(a) the atomic numbers are whole numbers and make the chemical calculations easier
(b) the chemical properties of an element depend upon the number of extra nuclear electrons
(c) elements exist in several isotopic forms with different mass numbers and it is difficult to choose the suitable isotope
(d) this gives a clear indication that the number of extra nuclear electrons is equal to the number of protons in the nucleus of element
Q27. Which one of the following possesses highest elasticity?
(a) Rubber
(b) Copper
(c) Steel
(d) Quartz
Q28. In which of the following media can sound waves not travel, while light waves travel in them with maximum speed?
(a) Glass
(b) Air
(c) Water
(d) Vacuum
Q29. The principle of buoyancy was given by
(a) Archimedes
(b) Newton
(c) Galileo
(d) Louis Pasteur
Q30. If you float in water just your nose out, the average density of your body must be
(a) greater than that of water
(b) same as that of water
(c) less than that of water
(d) None of the above
Q31. Steel is more elastic than rubber because
(a) it is metal
(b) its density is high
(c) ratio of stress to strain is more
(d) ratio of stress to strain is less
Q32. The mouthparts of housefly are
(a) piercing and sucking type
(b) sponging and sucking type
(c) biting and chewing type
(d) biting and sucking type
Q33. The digestive juice, which lacks enzymes is
(a) pancreatic juice
(b) bile juice
(c) intestinal juice
(d) gastric juice
Q34. Vitamin-C is chemically known as
(a) folic acid
(b) retinol
(c) ascorbic acid
(d) niacin
Q35. Inactive form of pepsin is called
(a) pepsinogen
(b) trypsinogen
(c) trypsin
(d) lipase
Q36. Ptyalin converts the starch into
(a) glucose
(b) fructose
(c) maltose
(d) sucrose
Q37. 20 yr ago the combined age of Ram and Shyam was 5/9th the sum of their present ages. If Ram is 20 yr elder to Shyam, the present age of Ram is
(a) 25 yr
(b) 35 yr
(c) 55 yr
(d) 90 yr
Q38. Sum of the digits of a two digit number is 24 times the sum of their reciprocals. If the sum of their reciprocals is 5/12, the number is
(a) 65
(b) 46
(c) 36
(d) Cannot be determined
Q39. For what value of k, the equations kx – 9y = 66 and 2x – 3y = 8 will have no solution?
(a) –6
(b) 6
(c) 33/4
(d) None of these
Q40. The value of x – y when the two equations are x + y = 50 and 3x – 2y = 0 is
(a) –10
(b) +10
(c) 20
(d) 25
Q41. Rashish has coins only in 2 denominations i.e., 10 paise and 25 paise. If the total number of coins and the total amount she has is 70 and ₹10 respectively, what is the number of 10 paise coins she has?
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 40
Q42. In a certain code language ‘ACT’ is written as ‘BGZ’. How will ‘GEL’ be written in that code?
(a) HTI
(b) HIR
(c) HSH
(d) HTS
Q43. In a certain code language ‘NXHYJ’ is written as ‘PALAM’. How will ‘RSZHM’ be written in that code?
(a) STAIN
(b) PPVEJ
(c) PQEVJ
(d) TVDJP
Q44. In a certain code language ‘DLEGYLC’ is written as ‘ENGLAND’. How will ‘HLBDY’ be written in that code?
(a) INDIA
(b) INDFZ
(c) NDOIA
(d) JNDEA
Q45. In a certain code language ‘AYS’ is written as ‘BAT’. How will ‘BYS’ be written in that code?
(a) CAT
(b) RAT
(c) MAT
(d) AAT
Q46. In a certain code language ‘PRAMOD’ is written as ‘SODJRA’. How will ‘KESHAV’ be written in that code?
(a) NBVFDS
(b) NBUEDS
(c) NBVECS
(d) NBVEDS
Q47. Pointing to a man, Deepak said, “His only brother is the father of my daughter’s father.” How is the man related to Deepak?
(a) Grandfather
(b) Father
(c) Uncle
(d) Brother-in-law
Q48. Pointing to a man in photograph, a woman said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather.” How is the woman related to the man in the photograph?
(a) Mother
(b) Aunt
(c) Sister
(d) Daughter
Q49. Pointing to a woman, a man said, “The sister of her mother’s husband is my aunt.” How is he related to that woman?
(a) Nephew
(b) Father
(c) Uncle
(d) Brother
Q50. Pointing to a photograph, Suraj said, “His daughter Sobha is granddaughter of my mother.” How is Sobha related to Suraj?
(a) Uncle
(b) Brother
(c) Son
(d) Cannot be determined
Q51. Pointing to Satish, Ashok said, “He is the son of my sister’s only brother.” How is Satish related to Ashok?
(a) Son
(b) Grandson
(c) Nephew
(d) None of these
Q52. The educated middle class in India:
(a) opposed the revolt of 1857
(b) supported the revolt of 1857
(c) remained neutral to the revolt of 1857
(d) fought against native rulers
Q53. The paintings of Abanindranath Tagore are classified as:
(a) realistic
(b) socialistic
(c) revivalistic
(d) impressionistic
Q54. There was no independent development of industries in India during British rule because of the:
(a) absence of heavy industries
(b) scarcity of foreign capital
(c) scarcity of natural resources
(d) preference of the rich to invest in land
Q55. The first feature film (talkie) to be produced in India was:
(a) Hatimtai
(b) Alam Ara
(c) Pundalik
(d) Raja Harishchandra
Q56. The Governor-General who followed a spirited “Forward” policy towards Afghanistan was:
(a) Minto
(b) Dufferin
(c) Elgin
(d) Lytton
Q57. At a time when empires in Europe were crumbling before the might of Napoleon, which one of the following Governors-General kept the British flag flying high in India?
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) Lord Hastings
Q58. Consider the following statements about Jawaharlal Nehru:
He was the president of the Congress Party in 1947
He presided over the Constituent Assembly
He formed the first Congress ministry in United Province before India’s independence
Of these statements:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 2 are correct
(d) none is correct
Q59. Which one of the following is not correct about the Cabinet Mission Plan?
(a) Provincial grouping
(b) Interim Cabinet of Indians
(c) Acceptance of Pakistan
(d) Constitution framing right
Q60. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
List-I
A. Abhinav Bharat Society
B. Anushilan Samiti
C. Gadar Party
D. Swaraj Party
List-II
Sri Aurobindo Ghosh
Lala Hardayal
C.R. Das
V.D. Savarkar
Codes:
(a) A–4; B–1; C–3; D–2
(b) A–1; B–4; C–3; D–2
(c) A–1; B–4; C–2; D–3
(d) A–4; B–1; C–2; D–3
Q61. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: [1996]
List-I (Period)
A. 1883
B. 1906
C. 1927
D. 1932
List-II (Event)
Announcement of Communal Award from Whitehall
Formation of the All India State Peoples Conference
Foundation of Muslim League at Dacca
First session of National Conference at Calcutta
Codes:
(a) A–4; B–3; C–1; D–2
(b) A–3; B–4; C–1; D–2
(c) A–4; B–3; C–2; D–1
(d) A–3; B–4; C–2; D–1
Q62. Consider the following statements:
The Non-Cooperation Movement led to:
Congress becoming a mass movement for the first time
Growth of Hindu-Muslim unity
Removal of fear of the British might from the minds of the people
British government’s willingness to grant political concessions to Indians
Of these statements:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 3 are correct
(d) 3 and 4 are correct
Q63. A new type of El Nino called El Nino Modoki appeared in the news. In this context, consider the following statements:
Normal El Nino forms in the Central Pacific Ocean whereas El Nino Modoki forms in Eastern Pacific Ocean
Normal El Nino results in diminished hurricanes in the Atlantic Ocean but El Nino Modoki results in a greater number of hurricanes with greater frequency
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q64. Which one of the following reflects back more sunlight as compared to other three?
(a) Sand desert
(b) Paddy crop
(c) Land covered with fresh snow
(d) Prairie land
Q65. A geographic region has the following distinct characteristics:
Warm and dry climate
Mild and wet winter
Evergreen Oak trees
The above features are distinct characteristics of which one of the following regions?
(a) Mediterranean
(b) Eastern China
(c) Central Asia
(d) Atlantic coast of North America
Q66. What causes wind to deflect toward left in the Southern Hemisphere?
(a) Temperature
(b) Magnetic field
(c) Rotation of the earth
(d) Pressure
Q67. If a tropical rain forest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous forest. This is because
(a) the soil of rain forest is deficient in nutrients
(b) propagules of the trees in a rain forest have poor viability
(c) the rain forest species are slow-growing
(d) exotic species invade the fertile soil of rain forest
Q68. Match List-I (Beaches in India) with List-II (States) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I
A. Gopinath Beach
B. Lawsons Bay Beach
C. Devbagh Beach
D. Sinquerim Beach
List-II
Andhra Pradesh
Kerala
Gujarat
Goa
Karnataka
Codes:
(a) A–5; B–4; C–2; D–1
(b) A–3; B–1; C–5; D–4
(c) A–5; B–1; C–2; D–4
(d) A–3; B–4; C–5; D–1
Q69. Match List-I (Biosphere Reserve) with List-II (States) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I
A. Similipal
B. Dehong Deband
C. Nokrek
D. Kanchenjunga
List-II
Sikkim
Uttaranchal
Arunachal Pradesh
Orissa
Meghalaya
Codes:
(a) A–1; B–3; C–5; D–4
(b) A–4; B–5; C–2; D–1
(c) A–1; B–5; C–2; D–4
(d) A–4; B–3; C–5; D–1
Q70. Amongst the following Indian States which one has the minimum total forest cover?
(a) Sikkim
(b) Goa
(c) Haryana
(d) Kerala
Q71. Consider the following statements:
The forest cover in India constitutes around 20% of its geographical area. Out of the total forest cover, dense forest constitutes around 40%.
The National Forestry Action Programme aims at bringing one third of the area of India under tree forest cover.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q72. Consider the following statements:
Area-wise, Chhattisgarh is larger than West Bengal.
According to the population Census 2001, population of West Bengal is larger than that of Chhattisgarh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q73. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the Act provided in the
(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
(b) Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
Q74. With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were
(a) directly elected by the people of those Provinces
(b) nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
(c) elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
(d) selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters
Q75. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
Q76. Consider the following statements:
An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q77. Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?
National Development Council
Planning Commission
Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q78. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Forests — Concurrent List
(b) Stock Exchange — Concurrent List
(c) Post Office Savings Bank — Union List
(d) Public Health — State List
Q79. Consider the following statements:
The highest deciding body for planning in India is the Planning Commission of India
The Secretary of the Planning Commission of India is also the Secretary of National Development Council
The Constitution includes economic and social planning in the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 only
Q80. Consider the following events:
Fourth general elections in India
Formation of Haryana state
Mysore named as Karnataka state
Meghalaya and Tripura become full states
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above?
(a) 2, 1, 4, 3
(b) 4, 3, 2, 1
(c) 2, 3, 4, 1
(d) 4, 1, 2, 3
Q81. Under which one of the Ministries of the Government of India does the Food and Nutrition Board work?
(a) Ministry of women and child development
(b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(c) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(d) Ministry of Rural Development
Q82. Consider the following statements:
The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national interest for the Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List.
Resolutions approving the proclamation of Emergency are passed only by the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q83.The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged to the:
(a) Consolidated Fund of India
(b) Consolidated Fund of the State
(c) Contingency Fund of India
(d) Contingency Fund of the State
Q84. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter included in the Union List of Legislative Powers rests with:
(a) The President of India
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The Parliament
(d) The Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Affairs
Q85. Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kolkata
(c) Chennai
(d) Orissa
Q86. Consider the following statements:
The highest criminal court of the district is the Court of District and Session Judge
The District Judges are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Courts
A person to be eligible for appointment as a District Judge should be an advocate or a pleader of seven years’ standing or more, or an officer in judicial service of the Union or the State
When the sessions judge awards a death sentence, it must be confirmed by the High Court before it is carried out
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q87. According to the National Human Rights Commission Act, 1993, who amongst the following can be its Chairman?
(a) Any serving Judge of the Supreme Court
(b) Any serving Judge of the High Court
(c) Only a retired Chief Justice of India
(d) Only a retired Chief Justice of a High Court
Q88. Human Development Index comprises literacy rates, life expectancy at birth and
(a) Gross National Product per head in US dollars
(b) Gross Domestic Product per head at real purchasing power
(c) Gross National Product in US dollars
(d) National Income per head in US dollars
Q89. In India, inflation is measured by the:
(a) Wholesale Price Index number
(b) Consumers Price Index for urban non-manual workers
(c) Consumers Price Index for agricultural workers
(d) National Income Deflation
Q90. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The emergence of economic globalism does not imply the decline of socialist ideology.
Reason (R): The ideology of socialism believes in Universalism and globalism.
In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q91. National Income is:
(a) Net National Product at market price
(b) Net National Product at factor cost
(c) Net Domestic Product at market price
(d) Net Domestic Product at factor cost
Q92. The Minimum Alternative Tax (MAT) was introduced in the Budget of the Government of India for the year:
(a) 1991–92
(b) 1992–93
(c) 1995–96
(d) 1996–97
Q93. Which country hosted the G20 Summit 2025?
(a) India
(b) Brazil
(c) South Africa
(d) Indonesia
Q94. Which Indian city hosted the Global Investors Summit 2025?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Lucknow
(c) Chennai
(d) Bhopal
Q95. Which organization launched the “AI for All 2025” global initiative?
(a) UNESCO
(b) World Bank
(c) United Nations
(d) IMF
Q96. Which country became the newest member of BRICS+ in 2025?
(a) Argentina
(b) Saudi Arabia
(c) Egypt
(d) UAE
Q97. Which Indian mission achieved a milestone in space exploration in 2025?
(a) Chandrayaan-4
(b) Aditya-L2
(c) Gaganyaan
(d) Shukrayaan-1
Q98. Who won the Nobel Peace Prize 2025?
(a) WHO
(b) Greta Thunberg
(c) International Court of Justice
(d) UNHCR
Q99. Which Indian state launched the “Green Hydrogen Policy 2025”?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Karnataka
Q100. Which country topped the Global Innovation Index 2025?
(a) USA
(b) Switzerland
(c) China
(d) Japan
Answers
Q.1 – d
Q.2 – d
Q.3 – b
Q.4 – b
Q.5 – b
Q.6 – b
Q.7 – a
Q.8 – a
Q.9 – b
Q.10 – b
Q.11 – b
Q.12 – a
Q.13 – c
Q.14 – d
Q.15 – b
Q.16 – d
Q.17 – c
Q.18 – c
Q.19 – b
Q.20 – c
Q.21 – a
Q.22 – a
Q.23 – b
Q.24 – c
Q.25 – b
Q.26 – b
Q.27 – c
Q.28 – d
Q.29 – a
Q.30 – b
Q.31 – c
Q.32 – b
Q.33 – b
Q.34 – c
Q.35 – a
Q.36 – c
Q.37 –c
Q.38 – b
Q.39 – b
Q.40 – a
Q.41 – c
Q.42 – b
Q.43 – d
Q.44 – b
Q.45 – a
Q.46 – d
Q.47 – c
Q.48 – c
Q.49 – d
Q.50 – d
Q.51 –a
Q.52 –c
Q.53 –c
Q.54 –a
Q.55 –b
Q.56 –d
Q.57 –d
Q.58 –b
Q.59 –c
Q.60 –d
Q.61 –c
Q.62 –b
Q.63 –b
Q.64 –c
Q.65 –a
Q.66 –c
Q.67 –a
Q.68 –b
Q.69 –d
Q.70 –c
Q.71 –b
Q.72 –c
Q.73 –c
Q.74 –c
Q.75 –c
Q.76 –d
Q.77 –d
Q.78 –b
Q.79 –b
Q.80 –a
Q.81 –a
Q.82 –a
Q.83 –b
Q.84 –c
Q.85 –b
Q.86 –d
Q.87 –c
Q.88 –d
Q.89 –a
Q.90 –a
Q.91 –b
Q.92 –d
Q.93 –c
Q.94 –d
Q.95 –a
Q.96 –b
Q.97 –c
Q.98 –d
Q.99 –a
Q.100 –b