Q1. What is the correct chronological order in which the following appeared in India?
Gold coins
Punch marked silver coins
Iron plough
Urban culture
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 3, 4, 1, 2
(b) 3, 4, 2, 1
(c) 4, 3, 1, 2
(d) 4, 3, 2, 1
Q2. Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion (A): According to Ashoka's edicts social harmony among the people was more important than religious devotion.
Reason (R): He spread ideas of equity instead of promotion of religion.
(a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q3. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Lothal : Ancient dockyard
Sarnath : First Sermon of Buddha
Rajgir : Lion capital of Ashoka
Nalanda : Great seat of Buddhist learning
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
Q4. Which one of the following ancient Indian records is the earliest royal order to preserve food-grains to be utilised during the crises in the country?
(a) Sohgaura Copper Plate
(b) Rummindei Pillar Edict of Ashoka
(c) Prayaga Prashasti
(d) Mehrauli Pillar Inscription of Chandra
Q5. In India, the first Bank of limited liability managed by Indians and founded in 1881 was:
(a) Hindustan Commercial Bank
(b) Oudh Commercial Bank
(c) Punjab National Bank
(d) Punjab and Sind Bank
Q6. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
List-I (Period) — List-II
AD 1767–69 — First Anglo-Maratha War
AD 1790–92 — Third Mysore War
AD 1824–26 — First Anglo-Burmese War
AD 1845–46 — Second Sikh War
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
Q7. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Pitt's India Act : Warren Hastings
(b) Doctrine of Lapse : Dalhousie
(c) Vernacular Press Act : Curzon
(d) Ilbert Bill : Ripon
Q8. Consider the following Viceroys of India during the British rule:
Lord Curzon
Lord Chelmsford
Lord Hardinge
Lord Irwin
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of their tenure?
(a) 1, 3, 2, 4
(b) 2, 4, 1, 3
(c) 1, 4, 2, 3
(d) 2, 3, 1, 4
Q9. Consider the following princely States of the British rule in India:
Jhansi
Sambalpur
Satara
The correct chronological order in which they were annexed by the British is:
(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 1, 3, 2
(c) 3, 2, 1
(d) 3, 1, 2
Q10. M.C. Setalvad, B.N. Rao and Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer were distinguished members of the:
(a) Swaraj Party
(b) All India National Liberal Federation
(c) Madras Labour Union
(d) Servants of India Society
Q11. What is the correct sequence of the following events?
Tilak's Home Rule League
Komagata Maru Incident
Mahatma Gandhi's arrival in India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 3, 2, 1
(c) 2, 1, 3
(d) 2, 3, 1
Q12. Simon Commission of 1927 was boycotted because:
(a) there was no Indian member in the Commission
(b) it supported the Muslim League
(c) Congress felt that the people of India are entitled to Swaraj
(d) there were differences among the members
Q13. The Indian Muslims, in general, were not attracted to the Extremist movement because of:
(a) influence of Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
(b) anti-Muslim attitude of Extremist leaders
(c) indifference shown to Muslim aspirations
(d) extremists’ policy of harping on Hindu aspect
Q14. Which one of the following events was characterised by Gandhiji as “Preventive Murder”?
(a) Killing of INA activists
(b) Massacre at Jallianwala Bagh
(c) Chauri Chaura Incident
(d) Partition of Bengal
Q15. Diamond ring is a phenomenon observed:
(a) at the start of a total solar eclipse
(b) at the end of a total solar eclipse
(c) only along the peripheral regions of the totality trail
(d) only in the central regions of the totality trail
Q16. Which one of the following factors is responsible for the change in the regular direction of the ocean currents in the Indian Ocean?
(a) Indian Ocean is half an ocean
(b) Indian Ocean has monsoon drift
(c) Indian Ocean is a land-locked ocean
(d) Indian Ocean has greater variation in salinity
Q17. Daily weather map showing isobars is an example of:
(a) Choropleth map
(b) Isopleth map
(c) Chorochromatic map
(d) Choroschematic map
Q18. The group of small pieces of rock revolving round the sun between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter are called:
(a) meteors
(b) comets
(c) meteorites
(d) asteroids
Q19.If the earth’s direction of rotation is reversed, what should be the IST when it is noon at the International Date Line?
(a) 00:30 hrs
(b) 05:30 hrs
(c) 11:30 hrs
(d) 17:30 hrs
Q20. Which one of the following stars is nearest to the Earth?
(a) Proxima Centauri
(b) Alpha Centauri
(c) Sirius
(d) Polaris
Q21. Which one of the following National Highways passes through Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh and Orissa?
(a) NH 4
(b) NH 5
(c) NH 6
(d) NH 7
Q22. Consider the following statements:
Balaghat is known for its diamond mines.
Majhgawan is known for its manganese deposits.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q23. Which one of the following rivers originates in Amarkantak?
(a) Damodar
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Narmada
(d) Tapi
Q24. Which one among the following major Indian cities is most eastward located?
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Bhopal
(c) Lucknow
(d) Bengaluru (Bangalore)
Q25. Out of the four southern States: Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu, which shares boundaries with the maximum number of Indian States?
(a) Andhra Pradesh only
(b) Karnataka only
(c) Each of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
(d) Each of Tamil Nadu and Kerala
Q26. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?
(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule
Q27. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the:
(a) Preamble to the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Ninth Schedule
Q28. The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to:
(a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
(b) determine the boundaries between States
(c) determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats
(d) protect the interests of all the border States
Q29. Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?
(a) The President of India
(b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
(d) The Supreme Court of India
Q30. "To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India" is a provision made in the:
(a) Preamble of the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Fundamental Duties
Q31. Which of the following political parties is/are national political parties?
Muslim League
Revolutionary Socialist Party
All India Forward Block
Peasants and Workers Party of India
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 only
(d) None
Q32. The Dinesh Goswami Committee was concerned with:
(a) de-nationalisation of banks
(b) electoral reforms
(c) steps to put down insurgency in the north-east
(d) the problem of the Chakmas
Q33. If in an election to a State Legislative Assembly, the candidate who is declared elected loses his deposit, it means that:
(a) the polling was very poor
(b) the election was for a multi-member constituency
(c) the elected candidate’s victory over his nearest rival was very marginal
(d) a very large number of candidates contested the election
Q34. If the number of seats allocated to a State in the Lok Sabha is 42, then the number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Castes in that State will be:
(a) 21
(b) 14
(c) 7
(d) cannot be determined.
Q35. Which one of the following is a part of the electoral college for the election of the President but not the forum for his impeachment?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) State Legislative Councils
(d) State Legislative Assemblies
Q36. A British citizen staying in India cannot claim the right to:
(a) Freedom of trade and profession
(b) Equality before the law
(c) Protection of life and personal liberty
(d) Freedom of religion
Q37. In the Indian Constitution, the Right to Equality is granted by five Articles. They are:
(a) Article 16 to Article 20
(b) Article 15 to Article 19
(c) Article 14 to Article 18
(d) Article 13 to Article 17
Q38. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?
(a) Right to Freedom of Religion
(b) Right to Property
(c) Right to Equality
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Q39. Consider the following statements:
Article 301 pertains to the Right to Property.
Right to Property is a legal right but not a Fundamental Right.
Article 300A was inserted in the Constitution by amendment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q40. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child, consider the following:
The Right of Development
The Right to Expression
The Right to Recreation
Which of the above is/are the Rights of the child?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q41. A consumer is said to be in equilibrium, if:
(a) he is able to fulfil his need with a given level of income
(b) he is able to live in full comforts with a given level of income
(c) he can fulfil his needs without consumption of certain items
(d) he is able to locate new sources of income
Q42. The supply-side economics lays greater emphasis on the point of view of:
(a) producer
(b) global economy
(c) consumer
(d) middle-man
Q43. Human Poverty Index was introduced in the Human Development Report of the year:
(a) 1994
(b) 1995
(c) 1996
(d) 1997
Q44. The current Price Index (base 1960) is nearly 330. This means that the price of:
(a) all items cost 3.3 times more than what they did in 1960
(b) the price of certain selected items have gone up to 3.3 times
(c) weighted mean of price of certain items has increased 3.3 times
(d) gold price has gone up 3.3 times
Q45. Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Devaluation of a currency may promote export.
Reason (R): Price of the country’s products in the international market may fall due to devaluation.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q46. Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Fiscal deficit is present when government expenditure exceeds its receipts (excluding borrowings).
Reason (R): Fiscal deficit indicates the total borrowing requirement of the government.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q47. Supply of money remaining the same when there is an increase in demand for money, there will be:
(a) a fall in the level of prices
(b) an increase in the rate of interest
(c) a decrease in the rate of interest
(d) an increase in the level of income and employment
Q48. Economic growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if:
(a) there is technical progress in the world economy
(b) there is population growth in X
(c) there is capital formation in X
(d) the volume of trade grows in the world economy
Q49. If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will:
(a) decrease the consumption expenditure in the economy
(b) increase the tax collection of the Government
(c) increase the investment expenditure in the economy
(d) increase the total savings in the economy
Q50. With reference to Union Budget, which of the following is/are covered under Non-Plan Expenditure?
Defence expenditure
Interest payments
Salaries and pensions
Subsidies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) None
Q51. The sales tax you pay while purchasing a toothpaste is a:
(a) tax imposed by the Central Government
(b) tax imposed by the Central Government but collected by the State Government
(c) tax imposed by the State Government but collected by the Central Government
(d) tax imposed and collected by the State Government
Q52. Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water in India?
(a) Engineering
(b) Paper and pulp
(c) Textiles
(d) Thermal power
Q53. Disguised unemployment generally means:
(a) large number of people remain unemployed
(b) alternative employment is not available
(c) marginal productivity of labour is zero
(d) productivity of workers is low
Q54. With reference to Balance of Payments, which of the following constitutes/constitute the Current Account?
Balance of trade
Foreign assets
Balance of invisibles
Special Drawing Rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Q55. In India, the steel production industry requires the import of:
(a) saltpetre
(b) rock phosphate
(c) coking coal
(d) All of the above
Q56. In the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, which one of the following is given the highest weight?
(a) Coal production
(b) Electricity generation
(c) Fertilizer production
(d) Steel production
Q57. Which organelle in the cell, other than nucleus, contains DNA?
(a) Centriole
(b) Golgi apparatus
(c) Lysosome
(d) Mitochondrion
Q58. “Athlete’s Foot” is a disease caused by:
(a) Bacteria
(b) Fungus
(c) Protozoan
(d) Nematode
Q59. Epiphytes are plants which depend on other plants for:
(a) food
(b) mechanical support
(c) shade
(d) water
Q60. In a bisexual flower, if androecium and gynoecium mature at different times, the phenomenon is known as:
(a) dichogamy
(b) herkogamy
(c) heterogamy
(d) monogamy
Q61. Consider the following plants:
Bougainvillea
Carnations
Cocoa
Grapes
Which of these plants are propagated by stem cuttings?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q62. Consider the following pairs:
Nokrek Biosphere Reserve — Garo Hills
Loktak Lake — Barail Range
Namdapha National Park — Dafla Hills
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Q63. In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of:
(a) insects and fungi
(b) limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients
(c) water limits and fire
(d) None of the above
Q64. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity?
(a) Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves
(b) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
(c) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans
(d) Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands
Q65. Consider the following fauna of India:
Gharial
Leatherback turtle
Swamp deer
Which of the above is/are endangered?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Q66. With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of organism is/are known as decomposer organisms?
Virus
Fungi
Bacteria
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q67. The state of Jhansi was made a part of the British empire in India through:
(a) the Policy of Doctrine of Lapse
(b) the Policy of Subsidiary Alliance
(c) Mayo’s Provincial Settlement
(d) war against Gangadhar Rao
Q68. Consider the following Acts:
i. Pitt’s India Act
ii. The Charter Act
iii. The Regulating Act
iv. Indian Council’s Act
What is the correct chronological sequence of these Acts?
(a) iii, i, ii, iv
(b) iv, i, ii, iii
(c) iii, ii, i, iv
(d) i, iv, ii, iii
Q69. The strategy of ‘Divide and Rule’ was adopted by:
(a) Lord Curzon
(b) Lord Wellesley
(c) Lord Minto
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Q70. Delhi became the capital of India in:
(a) 1910
(b) 1911
(c) 1916
(d) 1923
Q71. Consider the following events:
i. Swadeshi Movement
ii. Home Rule Movement
iii. Anti-Rowlatt Act Movement
iv. Khilafat Movement
Their correct chronological order is:
(a) i, ii, iii, iv
(b) i, ii, iv, iii
(c) iii, i, ii, iv
(d) ii, i, iii, iv
Q72. The period of one revolution of Sun around the centre of galaxy is called:
(a) Parsec
(b) Astronomical year
(c) Cosmic year
(d) Light year
Q73. Which two planets of the solar system have no satellites?
(a) Mercury and Venus
(b) Venus and Mars
(c) Mercury and Mars
(d) Venus and Neptune
Q74. The planet having thirteen moons is:
(a) Venus
(b) Mars
(c) Uranus
(d) Neptune
Q75. In order of their distances from the Sun, which of the following planets lie between Mars and Uranus?
(a) Earth and Jupiter
(b) Jupiter and Saturn
(c) Saturn and Earth
(d) Saturn and Neptune
Q76. The correct sequence of planets in the descending order of their equatorial diameter is:
(a) Mars, Mercury, Uranus, Earth
(b) Earth, Mars, Mercury, Uranus
(c) Mercury, Uranus, Mars, Earth
(d) Uranus, Earth, Mars, Mercury
Q77. Which of the planet is nearest to the Earth?
(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Jupiter
(d) Mars
Q78. Who acts as the President of India when neither the President nor the Vice-President is available?
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Auditor General of India
(d) Senior most Governor of a State
Q79. When the Vice-President officiates as President, he draws the salary of:
(a) President
(b) Member of Parliament
(c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Q80. The position of the Vice-President of India resembles, to a great extent, the position of the Vice-President of:
(a) USA
(b) Russia
(c) Italy
(d) New Zealand
Q81.The Vice-President’s letter of resignation is to be addressed to the:
(a) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) President
(d) Speaker
Q82. The Union Council of Ministers consists of:
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Cabinet Ministers
(c) Cabinet Ministers and Chief Ministers of the States
(d) Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State and Deputy Ministers
Q83. In a certain code language ‘QUESTION’ is written as ‘NXBVQLLO’. How will ‘REPLY’ be written in that code?
(a) PBMJV
(b) OHMOV
(c) OHNOV
(d) OIMOV
Q84. In a certain code language ‘BODY’ is written as ‘APCZ’. How will ‘DELHI’ be written in that code?
(a) CFKIH
(b) CFKHI
(c) CFKGI
(d) BFKGI
Q85. In a certain code language ‘CHAPTER’ is written as ‘DGBOUDS’. How will ‘BROWN’ be written in that code?
(a) EQPVO
(b) ESQVO
(c) CQPVO
(d) DONXM
Q86. In a certain code language ‘PUJA’ is written as ‘CFWJ’. How will ‘RUBY’ be written in that code?
(a) AYWL
(b) AXWX
(c) AXWL
(d) AXVL
Q87. In a certain code language ‘CLOCK’ is written as ‘KCOLC’. How will ‘STEPS’ be written in that code?
(a) SEPST
(b) SPETS
(c) STEPS
(d) SPTES
Q88. Pointing to a photograph, Vipul said, “She is the daughter of my grandfather’s only son.”
How is Vipul related to the girl in the photograph?
(a) Father
(b) Brother
(c) Cousin
(d) None of these
Q89. Pointing to a girl in photograph, Amar said, “Her mother’s brother is the only son of my mother’s father.”
How is the girl’s mother related to Amar?
(a) Mother
(b) Sister
(c) Aunt
(d) Grandmother
Q90. If Neena says, “Anita’s father Raman is the only son of my father-in-law Mahipal”, then how is Bindu, who is the sister of Anita, related to Mahipal?
(a) Niece
(b) Daughter
(c) Wife
(d) None of these
Q91. Pointing to a girl in photograph, Umesh said, “Her mother’s son is the only son of my mother’s father.”
How is the girl’s mother related to Umesh?
(a) Grandmother
(b) Sister
(c) Aunt
(d) Mother/Aunt
Q92. Deepak is brother of Ravi. Rekha is sister of Arun. Ravi is son of Rekha.
How is Deepak related to Rekha?
(a) Brother
(b) Son
(c) Nephew
(d) Father
Q93. Which Indian mission successfully demonstrated space docking technology (SPADEX) in 2025?
(a) ISRO
(b) NASA
(c) ESA
(d) Roscosmos
Q94. The “PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana” is related to:
(a) Agriculture subsidy
(b) Solar rooftop electricity
(c) Free LPG connections
(d) Rural housing
Q95. Which Indian state launched the “Mukhyamantri Ladli Behna Yojana” expansion in 2025?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Bihar
Q96. Who became the Chief Justice of India in 2025?
(a) Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
(b) Justice Sanjiv Khanna
(c) Justice U.U. Lalit
(d) Justice N.V. Ramana
Q97. The “Global Stocktake Report 2025” is related to which agreement?
(a) Kyoto Protocol
(b) Paris Agreement
(c) Montreal Protocol
(d) Glasgow Pact
Q98. Which country joined BRICS as a new member recently (2024–25 expansion)?
(a) Argentina
(b) Egypt
(c) Turkey
(d) Greece
Q99. India’s first semiconductor fabrication plant (approved recently) is being set up in:
(a) Gujarat
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka
(d) Telangana
Q100. Which organization launched the “Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) Global Initiative” in 2025 to promote India Stack globally?
(a) World Bank
(b) IMF
(c) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
(d) G20
Answers:
Q.1 -d
Q.2 -a
Q.3 -c
Q.4 -a
Q.5 -b
Q.6 -d
Q.7 -c
Q.8 -a
Q.9 -c
Q.10 -d
Q.11 -d
Q.12 -a
Q.13 -d
Q.14 -b
Q.15 -c
Q.16 -b
Q.17 -b
Q.18 -d
Q.19 -a
Q.20 -c
Q.21 -c
Q.22 -d
Q.23 -c
Q.24 -c
Q.25 -c
Q.26 -d
Q.27 -b
Q.28 -a
Q.29 -d
Q.30 -d
Q.31 -d
Q.32 -b
Q.33 -d
Q.34 -d
Q.35 -d
Q.36 -a
Q.37 -c
Q.38 -d
Q.39 -a
Q.40 -d
Q.41 -a
Q.42 -a
Q.43 -d
Q.44 -c
Q.45 -a
Q.46 -a
Q.47 -b
Q.48 -c
Q.49 -c
Q.50 -c
Q.51 -d
Q.52 -d
Q.53 -c
Q.54 -c
Q.55 -c
Q.56 -b
Q.57 -d
Q.58 -b
Q.59 -b
Q.60 -a
Q.61 -c
Q.62 -a
Q.63 -c
Q.64 -c
Q.65 -c
Q.66 -b
Q.67 -a
Q.68 -a
Q.69 -d
Q.70 -b
Q.71 -a
Q.72 -c
Q.73 -a
Q.74 -d
Q.75 -b
Q.76 -d
Q.77 -b
Q.78 -b
Q.79 -a
Q.80 -a
Q.81 -c
Q.82 -d
Q.83 -b
Q.84 -a
Q.85 -c
Q.86 -c
Q.87 -b
Q.88 -d
Q.89 -a
Q.90 -d
Q.91 -a
Q.92 -a
Q.93 -a
Q.94 -b
Q.95 -b
Q.96 -b
Q.97 -b
Q.98 -b
Q.99 -a
Q.100 -d