Q1. From the following list of learner characteristics, identify those which are associated with ‘field independent’ learners.

A. Focuses on facts and principles.
B. Perceives global aspects of concepts and materials.
C. Prefers and likes to compete.
D. Can organize information by himself/herself.
E. Likes to cooperate.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, B and C only

  2. B, C and D only

  3. A, C and D only

  4. C, D and E only

Q2. Which of the following are said to be style-related competencies of an effective teacher?

A. Organized demeanor which means being orderly, clear and in control.
B. Literacy which implies general knowledge as well as good at reading and writing.
C. Self-efficacy which refers to a person’s self-perceived capacity to perform a task.
D. Flexibility which means being sensitive and lenient.
E. Evaluating and providing feedback.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A and D only

  2. B and C only

  3. C and D only

  4. D and E only

Q3. The Phrase T-L model of teaching implies that

  1. Teaching and learning are independent acts.

  2. Teaching and learning are integrally related acts.

  3. Teaching aims at learning.

  4. Teaching causes learning.

Q4. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other as Reason R.

Assertion A : Nowadays many online courses are available and their popularity is increasing.

Reason R : Selecting the right course from many such is a big challenge.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

  2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

  3. A is correct but R is not correct.

  4. A is not correct but R is correct.

Q5. Which of the following sampling techniques in research imply randomization and equal probability of drawing the units?

A. Quota sampling
B. Snowball sampling
C. Stratified sampling
D. Dimensional sampling
E. Cluster sampling

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A and B only

  2. B and C only

  3. C and E only

  4. D and E only

Q6. Match List I with List II

List I (Scale of Measurement) List II (Properties)

A. Nominal I. Classification and order

B. Ordinal II. Classification, order and equal units

C. Interval III. Classification, order, equal units and absolute zero

D. Ratio IV. Classification only

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

  2. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

  3. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

  4. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Q 7. Match List I with List II

List I (Key research terms) List II (Description)

A. Research problems I. Devices using which data are gathered

B. Research hypothesis II. A subset drawn from a defined set or universe

C. Sample of study III. A tentative solution or answer to a research question

D. Research tools IV. The research question which has to be answered

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

  2. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

  3. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

  4. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Q 8. Given below are two statements:

Statement I : All research adds to the corpus of knowledge by advancing a theory.

Statement II : The focus of action research is basically on the amelioration of prevalent practices.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

  3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

  4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Q 9. Arrange the steps in a hypothetico-deductive research in the correct sequence:

A. Identifying and defining a research problem.
B. Defining the population and drawing a sub-set therefrom.
C. Data collection using appropriate research tasks followed by data analyses.
D. Hypothesis formulation and developing a design of research.
E. Taking a decision on the substantive research hypothesis via testing of the Null hypothesis (H₀).

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, D, B, C, E

  2. A, B, C, D, E

  3. A, C, B, D, E

  4. B, A, C, D, E

Q 10. A teacher proposes to find out the effect of praise and encouragement during teaching-learning session based on Skinner’s theory of reinforcement. What type of research will it belong to?

  1. Fundamental research

  2. Evaluative research

  3. Action research

  4. Applied research

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions from Q.11 to Q.15

In the narrowest sense, price is the amount of money charged for a product or a service. More broadly, price is the sum of all the values that customers give up to gain the benefits of having or using a product or service. Historically, price has been the major factor affecting buyer choice. In recent decades, however, non-price factors have gained increasing importance. Even so, price remains one of the most important elements that determines a firm’s market share and profitability.

Price is the only element in the marketing mix that produces revenue; all other elements represent costs. Price is also one of the most flexible marketing mix elements. Unlike product features and channel commitments, prices can be changed quickly. At the same time, pricing is the number one problem facing many marketing executives, and many companies do not handle pricing well. Some managers view pricing as a big headache, preferring instead to focus on other marketing mix elements. However, smart managers treat pricing as a key strategic tool for creating and capturing customer value.

Prices have a direct impact on a firm’s bottom line. A small percentage improvement in price can generate a large percentage increase in profitability.

Q 11. Historically price was considered important because

  1. Sellers were always benefitted.

  2. Money was charged for product.

  3. It provided options for buyers.

  4. It promoted non-price factors.

Q 12. What are the other factors influencing or setting the price for products or services?

A. Competitors’ strategies
B. Over-all marketing mix
C. Type of market
D. Pricing from one extreme to the other
E. Predators pricing strategies

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, D and E only

  2. A, B and C only

  3. C, D and E only

  4. B, C and D only

Q 13. What is the perception of smart managers regarding pricing?

  1. It is a strategic tool for consumer value.

  2. It invites issues.

  3. It is better to focus on other elements in the marketing mix.

  4. It is of indirect value to the firm.

Q 14. Which of the following is the major determinant of pricing for product or service?

  1. High demand

  2. Low demand

  3. Customer’s value perception

  4. Company’s quest for high profitability

Q 15. Why is price different from other elements in the marketing mix?

  1. It offsets cost

  2. It generates revenue

  3. It is rigid in character

  4. It ensures channel commitment

Q 16. When communication enhances the interaction of learners, it is

  1. Physiological

  2. Psychological

  3. Artistic

  4. Transient

Q 17. Match List I with List II

List I (Communication barriers) List II (Description)

A. Semantic I. Lack of physical clarity in channel

B. Psychological II. Faulty message

C. Personal III. Poor retention

D. Physical IV. Lack of time

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

  2. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

  3. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

  4. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Q 18. Classroom communication is

A. Goal-oriented
B. Style-centric
C. Collaborative
D. Vertical
E. Non-rhetorical

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A and B only

  2. B and D only

  3. A and C only

  4. D and E only

Q 19. Given below are two statements:

Assertion A : Allowing an issue to fester will contribute to effective communication.

Reason R : A good communicator will address an issue in the classroom before it becomes precarious.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

  2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

  3. A is true but R is false.

  4. A is false but R is true.

Q 20. Statement 1: sign and symbols have internal relations to produce meanings.

Statement 2: This is possible because of network of sign through such relations.

  1. both are true

  2. both are false

  3. 1 is trure and 2 is false

  4. 1 is false and 2 is true.

Q21. What is the next term in the following letter series?

aceg, cegi, egik, gikm, ?

  1. jlor

  2. hjlo

  3. ikmo

  4. ikmq

Q 22. Two water pipes can fill a tank in 10 minutes and 15 minutes respectively, if each of them is used separately. If both the pipes are used simultaneously, how long will it take to fill the tank?

  1. 6 minutes

  2. 8 minutes

  3. 7.5 minutes

  4. 9 minutes

Q 23. Consider the following number series

0, 6, 24, 60, 120, X

What is the value of the term X?

  1. 180

  2. 210

  3. 240

  4. 156

Q 24. A rational number has its denominator greater than its numerator by 6. If the numerator is increased by 4 and the denominator is decreased by 8, the number becomes 5/3.

What is the original rational number?

  1. 11/17

  2. 5/11

  3. 7/13

  4. 13/19

Q 25. A man covers a distance of 22 km in 4 hours by initially walking and then jogging at speeds of 4 km/h and 10 km/h, respectively.

The distance covered by him during walking is

  1. 10 km

  2. 12 km

  3. 15 km

  4. 18 km

Q 26. Which one of the following decides the figure of a categorical proposition?

  1. Major term

  2. Minor term

  3. Middle term

  4. Copula

Q 27. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other as Reason R

Assertion A : If there is a contestation between Sruti and Smriti, Sruti prevails over Smriti.

Reason R : Sruti represents the philosophical aspects of the Vedas and Upanishads, while Smriti is an application of the philosophical ideas.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

  2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

  3. A is correct but R is not correct.

  4. A is not correct but R is correct.

Q 28. Quantity and quality of categorical proposition decide

  1. Validity

  2. Invalidity

  3. Mood

  4. Figure

Q 29. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion A and Reason R

Assertion A : All perceptions seem entirely loose and separate. They are conjoined but not necessarily connected.

Reason R : Since the perceptions of hardness is not necessarily connected with its colour, it can be said that perceptions are loosely connected.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

  2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

  3. A is correct but R is not correct.

  4. A is not correct but R is correct.

Q 30. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion A and Reason R

Assertion A : Substance is self-caused, self-conceived and self-existent.

Reason R : Substance is not caused by other causal sources but is conceived by something else and is also existent on that.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

  2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

  3. A is correct but R is not correct.

  4. A is not correct but R is correct.

Based on the data in the table, answer the questions that follow from Q.31 to Q.35

Consider the following table which contains year-wise data of installed Renewable Energy capacity for four countries (X, Y, Z, T) over a period of 5 years from 2015 to 2019

Year X Y Z T

2015 10 15 08 12

2016 13 18 10 13

2017 15 20 12 15

2018 20 20 15 18

2019 22 24 20 20

Q 31. In any given year, compared to the previous year which country(s) registered maximum growth (%)?

  1. T

  2. Z and Y

  3. Y

  4. X and Z

Q 32. Between 2016 and 2017, which country registered maximum growth (%) in installed capacity of Renewable Energy?

  1. X

  2. Z

  3. Y

  4. T

Q 33. Which country registered maximum growth (%) by 2019 with reference to year 2015?

  1. Z

  2. T

  3. X

  4. Y

Q 34. Taking all four countries together, what is the over-all increase (%) in installed capacity of Renewable Energy in the year 2019 with reference to 2015?

  1. 52.32%

  2. 91.11%

  3. 117.32%

  4. 121.81%

Q 35. For the country ‘Y’, what is the average annual growth (%) of Renewable Energy capacity?

  1. −10.85%

  2. −12.77%

  3. −13.25%

  4. −11.65%

Q 36. Which of the following is the data visualization method?

1. Line 2. Circle and Triangle 3. Pie chart and Bar chart 4. Pentagon

Q 37. Computer hardware consists of

  1. Computer table

  2. Monitor and CPU

  3. Software

  4. Google

Q 38. A-F system is used in which of the following number systems?

  1. Binary

  2. Octal

  3. Hexa-Decimal

  4. Decimal

Q 39. What is the full form of the abbreviation BIOS?

  1. Big Information Online System

  2. Binary Input Output Software

  3. Basic Input Output System

  4. Binary Inner Open Software

Q 40. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion A and Reason R

Assertion A : Use of ICT is justified during teaching with a view to optimize learning outcomes.

Reason R : Learning outcomes are contingent on use of ICT during teaching.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

  2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

  3. A is correct but R is not correct.

  4. A is not correct but R is correct.

Q 41. Under Goal 4 Millennium Development Goals, the reduction sought to be achieved in under-five child mortality rate between 1990–2015 was to the extent of

  1. Half

  2. Two-third

  3. Three-fourth

  4. One-third

Q 42. From disaster mitigation measures given below, identify the measures which can be characterized as non-structural

A. Flood dykes
B. Land-use zoning
C. Raising of homes in flood-prone areas
D. Insurance programmes
E. Reinforce tornado safe rooms

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. B and D only

  2. A, B and D only

  3. B, D and E only

  4. A, B, D and E only

Q43. Match List I with List II

List I (Emitted Pollutants) List II (Environment Impact)

A. Carbon dioxide I. Formation of acid rain

B. Carbon monoxide II. Toxic and are carcinogenic

C. Nitrogen oxides III. Toxic and can cause respiratory disease

D. Benzene and hydrocarbons IV. Contribution to global warming as a greenhouse gas

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

  2. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

  3. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

  4. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

Q 44. The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) set in 2015 by the United Nations are intended to be achieved by

  1. 2025

  2. 2030

  3. 2035

  4. 2040

Q 45. Identify the correct sequence of countries in decreasing order of their contribution to global carbon dioxide emissions

A. USA
B. China
C. Russia
D. India
E. Japan

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, B, D, C, E

  2. B, A, D, C, E

  3. B, A, D, E, C

  4. A, B, D, E, C

    Q 46. assertion: a windmill with proper design considered a range 60% to 65% efficiency.

    Reason: efficiency of windmill depends on its design

    1. Both A and R are correct

    2. Both A and R are incorrect

    3. A is correct and Ris incorrect

    4. A is not correct and R is correct.

    Q 47. Ashtadhyayi was written by

  1. Chanakya

  2. Jivaka

  3. Katyayana

  4. Panini

Q 48. Match List I with List II

List I (Modes of supply of education services under GATS) List II (Examples of these services in education)

A. Mode 1 – Cross border supply I. Professors, teachers and researchers working

abroad on a temporary basis

B. Mode 2 – Consumption abroad II. Language training companies, local university and

satellite campuses

C. Mode 3 – Commercial presence III. Distance education, virtual education, corporate

training through ICT

D. Mode 4 – Movement of natural persons IV. A student travels to another country to enrol in a

course of study/degree programme

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

  2. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

  3. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

  4. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

Q 49. Which of the following areas of liberal education at the higher level in the feudal society of Europe were classified under Quadrivium?

A. Grammar
B. Logic
C. Arithmetic
D. Astronomy
E. Music

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, B and C only

  2. B, C and D only

  3. C, D and E only

  4. A, D and E only

Q 50. National Programme for Technology Enhanced Learning (NPTEL) was initiated by the MHRD in 2003 to enhance the quality in

  1. Medical education

  2. Agricultural education

  3. Engineering education

  4. Legal education

Answers

Q.1 - 3 Q.2 - 1 Q.3 - 2 Q.4 - 2 Q.5 - 3 Q.6 - 4 Q.7 - 1 Q.8 - 4 Q.9 - 1 Q.10 - 4 Q.11 - 3 Q.12 - 2 Q.13 - 1 Q.14 - 3 Q.15 - 2 Q.16 - 2 Q.17 - 2 Q.18 - 3 Q.19 - 4 Q.20 - 1 Q.21 - 3 Q.22 - 1 Q.23 - 2 Q.24 - 1 Q.25 - 2 Q.26 - 3 Q.27 - 1 Q.28 - 3 Q.29 - 1 Q.30 - 3 Q.31 - 4 Q.32 - 2 Q.33 - 1 Q.34 - 2 Q.35 - 2 Q.36 - 3 Q.37 - 2 Q.38 - 3 Q.39 - 3 Q.40 - 3 Q.41 - 2 Q.42 - 1 Q.43 - 1 Q.44 - 2 Q.45 - 2 Q.46 - 4 Q.47 - 4 Q.48 - 2 Q.49 - 3 Q.50 - 3