Q1. Teaching differs from training and conditioning in so far as it promotes?

  1. Disciplined drill

  2. Critical thinking

  3. Steady association

  4. Mastery of facts

Q2. In the spectrum of teaching methods given below, which are considered dialogic?

A. Laboratory work
B. Demonstration
C. Tutorials
D. Group discussion
E. Project work

Choose the correct answer:

  1. C and D only

  2. A and B only

  3. B and C only

  4. D and E only

Q3. Identify from the following those features of key behaviours which are contributive to the effectiveness of teaching:

A. Lesson clarity which implies making ideas clear to the learner
B. Questioning – implying fact and concept based questions
C. Probing involving eliciting and soliciting moves
D. Teacher-task orientation with focus on outcomes of the unit clearly defined
E. Engagement in the learning process which implies the amount of time students devote to learning

Options:

  1. A, B and C only

  2. B, C and D only

  3. A, D and E only

  4. B, D and E only

Q4. Which of the following factors contributing to school learning are termed as social competence?

A. Motivation
B. Intelligence
C. Social skills
D. Family support
E. Specific abilities of the learner

Options:

  1. A, C and D only

  2. A, B and C only

  3. B, C and D only

  4. C, D and E only

Q5. Match List I with List II

List I (Methods of estimating the reliability of a test)

A. Test-retest method
B. Alternate form method
C. Split-half method
D. Inter-rater method

List II (Description)

I. Administering the test in one session with two equivalent halves of the test for correlation
II. Two or more raters score the test independently
III. Administering the same test to the same group at two different sessions
IV. Administering the two forms of the test to the same group at two different sessions

Options:

  1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

  2. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

  3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

  4. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Q6. Which of the following research is intervention-based, cyclic in nature and improvement focused?

  1. Case study research

  2. Survey research

  3. Experimental research

  4. Action research

Q7. Using an appropriate parametric test in a research project, the researcher finds evidence to reject the Null hypothesis. In doing so, which type of error is likely?

  1. Alpha error

  2. Beta error

  3. Both Alpha and Beta errors

  4. Neither Alpha nor Beta error

Q8. A college/university teacher plans to test his/her substantive hypothesis in a major project. Which of the following statements are considered relevant?

A. Substantive research hypothesis has to clearly specify the relationship among variables.
B. Research hypothesis may be directed at finding out differential effects or relationships.
C. Null hypothesis should be formulated beforehand.
D. There is direct support available for testing the substantive research hypothesis.
E. The final decision on the research hypothesis may be reached indirectly by deciding the fate of the Null hypothesis.

Options:

  1. A, B and C only

  2. B, C and D only

  3. A, D and E only

  4. A, B and E only

Q9. Match List I with List II

List I (Sampling techniques used in research)

A. Simple random sampling
B. Systematic sampling
C. Dimensional sampling
D. Snowball sampling

List II (Description)

I. The units are identified in terms of various specific features identified before drawing a sample structure.
II. Each unit is given an equal independent chance of being picked up.
III. The k-interval is obtained by N/n and the units are drawn using the same.
IV. First member unit is used to identify the second unit and so on.

Options:

  1. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

  2. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

  3. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

  4. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Q10. Assertion–Reason

Assertion (A): Empirico-inductive paradigm in research focuses on meaning-giving subjective perspectives to depict reality.

Reason (R): The purpose of research in this paradigm is not to arrive at generalizations but to discover the reality as lived.

Options:

  1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

  3. A is correct but R is not correct

  4. A is not correct but R is correct

Comprehension Passage

(Read the passage and answer Q11–Q15)

Marketers are reexamining their relationships with social values and responsibilities and with the very Earth that sustains us. As the worldwide consumerism and environmentalism movement develops, today’s marketers are being called on to develop sustainable marketing practices. Corporate ethics and social responsibility have become hot topics for almost every business. Companies can no longer ignore the renewed and very demanding environmental movement. Today’s customers expect companies to deliver value in a socially and environmentally responsible way.

Today’s customers expect companies to deliver value in a socially and environmentally responsible way. The social-responsibility and environmental movements will place even stricter demands on companies in the future. Some companies resist these movements, budging only when forced by legislation or organized customer outcries. Forward-looking companies, however, readily accept their responsibilities to the world around them. They view sustainable marketing as an opportunity to do well by doing good. They seek ways to profit by serving immediate needs and the best long-run interest of their customers and communities.

Some companies, such as Patagonia, Ben & Jerry’s, Timberland, Method, and others, practice caring capitalism, setting themselves apart by being civic-minded and responsible. They build social linkages.

Q11.

The present-day marketers have focused on

  1. Consumerism

  2. Social obligations

  3. Sustaining their business practices

  4. Competitive business

Q12.

The concern for today’s society centres on

  1. Marketing strategies

  2. Customer relations

  3. Corporate ethics

  4. Delivery of value for money

Q13.

What do farsighted companies prefer?

  1. Sustainable marketing

  2. Legislative compulsion

  3. Organised consumer pressure

  4. Status quo in the market

Q14.

According to the passage, sustainable marketing is perceived as

  1. Immediately profitable

  2. Community fallacy

  3. Doing good to community as an opportunity

  4. Long-term burden to society

Q15.

Caring capitalism is inclusive of

A. Make profit by ignoring social demands
B. Being civic-minded
C. Forging social linkages
D. Budge when there is a legislative nudge

Options:

  1. A and B only

  2. B and C only

  3. C and D only

  4. A and D only

Q16. The concept ‘fraction of selection’ in classroom communication is determined by the expectation of reward related to:

  1. Efforts needed

  2. Reviews needed

  3. Peer pressure needed

  4. Time-lag needed

Q17. Efficacy of written communication depends upon:

A. Lengthy presentation
B. Complex sentence structure
C. Editing after writing
D. Brevity in sentences
E. Use of strong words
F. Effective use of words

Choose the correct answer:

  1. A, B and C only

  2. B, C and D only

  3. C, D and F only

  4. D, E and F only

Q18. Assertion–Reason

Assertion (A):
It is the responsibility of the teacher to make students active listeners with the help of different interactive techniques.

Reason (R):
In teacher-centric communication, students tend to become passive listeners.

Options:

  1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

  3. A is true but R is false

  4. A is false but R is true

Q19. Match List I with List II

List I (Type of communication)

A. Intra-personal
B. Inter-personal
C. Group
D. Mass

List II (Characteristics)

I. Between persons
II. Within a small organisation
III. Large number of unknown audience
IV. Within oneself

Options:

  1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

  2. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

  3. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

  4. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Q20.Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Personality conflicts in a classroom situation are a barrier to effective interaction.

Statement II: Impersonal communication is invariably considered the best solution in a classroom environment.

Options:

  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

  4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

Unit V:

Q21. Given three numbers, the first is twice the second and is half of the third.
If the average of three numbers is 56, then the difference of the first and third number is:

  1. 12

  2. 24

  3. 36

  4. 48

Q22.Identify the next term in the series:

2, 10, 26, 50, ___

  1. 78

  2. 94

  3. 82

  4. 104

Q23.A man in a train notices that he can count 31 telephone poles in one minute.
If the poles are at equal intervals of 50 m, what is the speed of the train?

  1. 50 km/hour

  2. 60 km/hour

  3. 80 km/hour

  4. 90 km/hour

Q24. A sum of Rs. 50,000 is invested in a bank deposit for 1 year at an interest rate of 10% per annum, compounded on a half-yearly basis.

What is the amount of interest at the end of 1 year?

  1. 5125

  2. 5250

  3. 5500

  4. 5150

Q25. In the following letter series, what is the next term?

abcf, bcdg, cdeh, defi, ___

  1. efij

  2. efgi

  3. efgj

  4. defj

Q26.The sequential order of syllogism in Nyaya philosophy is:

A. Nigman
B. Udaharana
C. Hetu
D. Upanaya
E. Pratigya

Options:

  1. A, E, C, D, B

  2. E, C, B, A, D

  3. E, B, C, D, A

  4. D, A, B, C, E

Q27.What is the sequential order of a comprehensible sentence in Nyaya philosophy?

A. Akanksha
B. Yogyata
C. Tatparya
D. Sannidhi

Options:

  1. D, C, B, A

  2. A, B, D, C

  3. C, D, B, A

  4. D, C, A, B

Q28.To infer rain in the past by perceiving muddy water in the pond, is:

  1. Purvavat Anumana

  2. Sesavat Anumana

  3. Both Purvavat and Sesavat

  4. Comparison

Q29.The fallacy (hetvabhasa) produced in the conclusion due to the repudiation of Sadhya by Hetu is known as:

  1. Savyabhichara

  2. Viruddha

  3. Satpratipaksha

  4. Asiddha

Q30.Given below are four propositions. Two of them are related in such a way that they cannot be true together, although they can be false together.

A. All men are honest
B. No men are honest
C. Some men are honest
D. Some men are not honest

Options:

  1. A and B only

  2. B and C only

  3. C and D only

  4. A and D only

Q31-35 Expenditures of Institution (in lakh rupees)

Year Salary Transport Bonuses Interest on Taxes

of staff Loan

2015 288 98 3 23.4 83

2016 342 112 2.62 32.5 108

2017 324 101 3.84 41.6 74

2018 336 133 3.68 36.4 88

2019 420 14 3.96 49.4 98

Q31.What is the average amount of interest per year that the institution had to pay?

  1. 30.50

  2. 36.66

  3. 39.66

  4. 41.02

Q32.The total amount of bonus paid by the institution during the given period is approximately what percent of the total salary paid during this period?

  1. ~3%

  2. ~4%

  3. ~7%

  4. ~1%

Q33.Total expenditure on all these items in 2015 was approximately what percent of the total expenditure in 2019?

  1. 84.63%

  2. 58%

  3. 91%

  4. 73%

Q34.The total expenditure of the institution on these items during the year 2017 is

  1. 624.6

  2. 524.44

  3. 544.44

  4. 591.41

Q35.The ratio between the expenditure on taxes for the years 2016 and 2018 is approximately:

  1. 17 : 11

  2. 27 : 22

  3. 31 : 27

  4. 19 : 17

Q36.What is the full form of the abbreviation IoT?

  1. International Office of Tourism

  2. Internet of Things

  3. Internet of Think

  4. Instrument of Telecommunication

Q37.Which type of memory holds the computer start-up routine?

  1. RAM

  2. WAN

  3. ROM

  4. Cache

Q38. Assertion–Reason

Assertion (A):
Total number of mobile users in India is increasing rapidly.

Reason (R):
The cost of the mobile is decreasing.

Options:

  1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

  3. A is correct but R is not correct

  4. A is not correct but R is correct

Q39. The file extension of Microsoft Word document in Office 2007 is:

  1. .docx

  2. .png

  3. .doc

  4. .jpg

Q40.What is the binary number for the decimal number 9?

  1. 1100

  2. 1001

  3. 0111

  4. 1011

Q41.The phenomenon of ozone depletion is caused by:

A. Volatile chlorinated hydrocarbons
B. Emissions from thermal power plants
C. Combustion of urban waste
D. Excessive use of nitrogen-containing fertilizers

Options:

  1. A, B and D only

  2. A and D only

  3. A, B and C only

  4. A, C and D only

Q42.Which of the following was NOT an issue addressed under Millennium Development Goals (MDGs)?

  1. Child mortality

  2. Environmental sustainability

  3. Human rights

  4. Primary education

Q43.Identify the correct sequence of countries in decreasing order of their contributions to per capita carbon dioxide emissions at present:

A. India
B. China
C. USA
D. Japan

Options:

  1. C, D, B, A

  2. B, C, A, D

  3. D, B, C, A

  4. C, B, D, A

Q44. Assertion–Reason

Assertion (A):
In the contemporary environmental discourse, small hydropower plants are preferred over large hydropower plants.

Reason (R):
Installation of a small hydropower plant is less capital intensive compared to a large hydropower plant.

Options:

  1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

  3. A is correct but R is not correct

  4. A is not correct but R is correct

Q45.Daytime noise standard prescribed for residential areas in India is:

  1. 75 dB

  2. 65 dB

  3. 55 dB

  4. 50 dB

Q46.Takshashila, an ancient centre for higher learning in India, was declared as a heritage site by UNESCO in

  1. 1980

  2. 1982

  3. 1984

  4. 1986

Q47.Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA), a Centrally Sponsored Scheme aiming at providing strategic funding to eligible state higher educational institutions, was launched in:

  1. 2010

  2. 2011

  3. 2012

  4. 2013

Q48.Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in higher education is the total enrolment in higher education regardless of age expressed as a percentage to the eligible official population in a given school year.

Which of the following age groups explains the eligible official population in this regard?

  1. 16–21 years

  2. 17–22 years

  3. 18–23 years

  4. 19–24 years

Q49.Which of the following statements best describe value education?

A. It is a course in moral science
B. It talks about rewards and punishment for one’s own actions
C. Students observe and imitate adult behaviours, particularly that of their parents
D. Students investigate and explore their own inner self
E. It encourages students to fix their place in their life

Options:

  1. A, B and C only

  2. B, C and D only

  3. C, D and E only

  4. A, D and E only

Q50. Match List I with List II

List I (ICT initiatives of Ministry of Human Resource Development)

A. SWAYAM
B. SWAYAM PRABHA
C. e-PG Pathshala
D. e-Yantra

List II (Benefits)

I. To get hands-on experience in embedded system
II. To get free books and curriculum-based e-content
III. To watch high-quality educational programmes 24×7
IV. To earn credits through online courses

Options:

  1. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

  2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

  3. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

  4. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Answers

Q1. 2 – Critical thinking
Q2. 1 – C and D only
Q3. 3 – A, D and E only
Q4. 1 – A, C and D only

Q5. 4 – A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Q6. 4 – Action research
Q7. 1 – Alpha error
Q8. 4 – A, B and E only
Q9. 2 – A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
Q10. 1

Q11. 2 – Social obligations
Q12. 3 – Corporate ethics
Q13. 1 – Sustainable marketing
Q14. 3 – Doing good to community as an opportunity
Q15. 2 – B and C only

Q16. 1 – Efforts needed
Q17. 3 – C, D and F only
Q18. 1
Q19. 4 – A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Q20. 3

Q21. 4 – 48
Q22. 3 – 82
Q23. 4 – 90 km/h
Q24. 1 – 5125
Q25. 3 – efgj

Q26.
Q27. 2 – A, B, D, C
Q28. 2 – Sesavat Anumana
Q29. 2 – Viruddha
Q30. 1 – A and B only

Q31. 2 – 36.66
Q32. 4 – ~1%
Q33. 1 – 84.63%
Q34. 3 – 544.44
Q35. 2 – 27 : 22

Q36. 2 – Internet of Things
Q37. 3 – ROM
Q38. 1
Q39. 1 – .docx
Q40. 2 – 1001

Q41. 2 – A and D only
Q42. 3 – Human rights
Q43. 1 – C, D, B, A

Q44. 2
Q45. 3 – 55 dB
Q46. 1 – 1980
Q47. 4 – 2013
Q48. 3 – 18–23 years
Q49. 3 – C, D and E only
Q50. 2 – A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I