Q1. Which school of thought laid down one of the principles of teacher and learner role as follows:
“The teacher’s role is not to direct but to advise because the child’s own interest should determine what he learns”.

1. Perennialism

2. Progressivism

3. Essentialism

4. Reconstructionism

Q2. From the list given below, identify those features which relate to an approach to teaching and learning in indirect strategies of teaching.

A. Engagement in an inquiring process
B. Concept-based content presentation
C. Gaining attention and informing the learners of the instructional objective
D. Presenting the stimulus material and stimulating recall of prerequisite learning
E. Encouraging students to use references from their own experiences

Choose the correct answer:

1. A, B and C only

2. B, C and D only

3. A, B and E only

4. C, D and E only

Q3. For use during teaching, from the list given below, identify questions that are ‘process type’ rather than ‘content-type’.

A. Divergent questions
B. Fact-based questions
C. Concept-based questions
D. Lower order questions
E. Higher-order questions

Choose the correct answer:

1. A, C and E only

2. B, C and D only

3. C, D and E only

4. B, D and E only

Q4. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Reliability is a necessary but insufficient condition for validity.

Statement II: In respect of evaluation tools, validity is not an all-or-none concept but exists as a continuum.

Choose the correct answer:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q5. Which of the following methods of acquiring knowledge save time and effort on the part of the researcher?

1. Method of experience

2. Inductive method

3. Deductive method

4. Method of consulting an authority

Q6.Which of the following are features of the qualitative research paradigm?

A. The research is concerned with understanding the social phenomena from the participant’s perspective.
B. It seeks to establish relationships among variables and explains causes of changes in measured social facts.
C. It is conducted in actual settings as the direct source of data and the researcher is the key instrument.
D. It is concerned with the process rather than simply with outcomes or products.
E. It attempts to establish universal context-free generalization.

Choose the correct answer:

1. A, B and C only

2. B, C and D only

3. A, C and D only

4. C, D and E only

Q7.A researcher administers an achievement test to assess and indicate the possible effect of an independent variable in his/her study. The distribution of scores on the test is found to be negatively skewed. On the basis of this, what can be stated with regard to the difficulty level of the test?

1. The test is very easy

2. The test is very difficult

3. The test is neither easy nor difficult

4. The test is easy and needs normalization

Q8. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion A: A researcher has to observe codal formalities at all stages without scope and leeway for offending moral and ethical norms.

Reason R: In respect of data collection, data analysis and interpretation there is, however, a considerable scope of being ethically vulnerable.

Choose the correct answer:

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is true but R is false

4. A is false but R is true

Q9. The scope for employing ICT support is relatively more in which of the following stages of research?

A. Problem formulation
B. Hypothesis making
C. Data collection
D. Data analysis
E. Data interpretation

Choose the correct answer:

1. A and B only

2. B and D only

3. C and D only

4. D and E only

Unit III: Comprehension

Read the passage carefully and answer Q10–Q14.

According to Richard Beckhard, a transformation represents a vital organizational change. Transformation is characterized by certain features that clearly differentiate it from other types of change. First, according to Beckhard, it involves substantial and discontinuous change to the shape, structure, and nature of the organization, rather than incremental adjustments and finetuning of the current situation. One example of a discontinuous change would be when a firm changes from being production-driven to being customer-driven. Another would be a merger of two organizations. In both instances, the shape of the organization can be expected to change radically. An organization transforming from a production orientation to a customer orientation will need to drastically decentralize and delegate authority. In a merger, entirely new roles and working relationships will be created.

A second characteristic of transformation is that the need for change is caused by forces external to the organization rather than forces inside the organization. A typical example would be when an organization changes from a functional to a divisional structure in response to market forces or industry pressures in the form of competitor actions or regulatory changes. Currently, globalization is one of the most powerful external forces for organizational transformation.

A third distinguishing feature of transformation is that the change is deep and pervasive, rather than shallow and contained. The change affects all parts of the organization and involves many levels. Decentralization, downsizing and the geographic relocation of functions and activities exemplify changes that transform structural relationships deeply and pervasively.

Finally, transformation requires significantly different, and even entirely new, sets of actions by the members of the organization, rather than more or less of existing behaviour patterns. Examples are changes to the norms and core values of an organization.

Q10.According to Richard Beckhard, transformation is what kind of change in the organizational structure?

1. Incremental

2. Discontinuous

3. Finetuning

4. One-time

Q11.What happens when two organisations merge?

A. Shape of the organisation will change
B. Product orientation remains the same
C. Drastic decentralisation of authority
D. Discontinuous change does not take place

Choose the correct answer:

1. A and B only

2. B and C only

3. C and D only

4. A and C only

Q12.The pressure of market force can result in:

1. Distortion of role perceptions

2. Changing to a functional structure

3. Changing to a divisional structure

4. Deregulation of competitive factors

Q13. What are the main levels of organizational transformation?

A. Downsizing
B. Geographical relocation
C. Contained changes
D. Power to external forces

Choose the correct answer.

1. A and B

2. B and C

3. C and D

4. A and D

Q14. What does organizational transformation require?

1. Strengthening existing behaviours of members

2. Changes in norms and core values

3. Production-efficiency strategy

4. All pervasive structural relationships

Q15. The domain of media appeal addresses the issues related to:

1. Knowledge

2. Learning

3. Legality

4. Emotions

Q16.Which of the following will make a student a good listener in the classroom?

A. Ability to deflect attention
B. Concentration
C. Desire to understand
D. Emotional outbursts
E. Humility to know
F. Ignoring the other side

Choose the correct answer.

1. A, B, C

2. B, C, D

3. D, E, F

4. B, C, E

Q17. Assertion A: Pedagogy and social interaction are two major areas of activity of teachers.

Reason R: It is communication that is crucial for making both the activities important.

Choose the correct answer.

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are false

3. A is true but R is false

4. A is false but R is true

Q18. Match List I with List II.

List I (Types of listeners)
A. Poor listeners
B. Aggressive listeners
C. Passive listeners
D. Pseudo-intellectual

List II (Characteristics)
I. Scare others
II. Easily agree with the speaker
III. Listen to ideas but no emotions behind
IV. Fidget repeatedly

Choose correct answer

1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

2. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

3. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

4. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Q19. Find out the correct chronological order of the following educational communication ventures in India.

A. Krishi Darshan
B. Gyan Darshan
C. Vyas
D. Gyan Vani

Choose the correct answer

1. A, B, C, D

2. B, C, D, A

3. D, A, B, C

4. A, D, B, C

Q20. Synchronous communication takes place through which of the following technologies?

A. Video chat
B. Virtual classrooms
C. Audio conferencing
D. Wikis
E. Electronic mail

choose the correct answer

1. A, B, C,

2. B, C, A

3. D, B, C

4. A, D, B

Q21.The difference of the square of two consecutive even numbers is 84. What is the sum of these two consecutive even numbers?

1. 34

2. 38

3. 36

4. 42

Q22. Identify the next term in the series:

0, 8, 24, 48, ___

1. 72

2. 96

3. 120

4. 80

Q23. Mr X is 40 years old and Mr Y is 60 years old. How many years ago was the ratio of their ages 3:5?

1. 15 yrs 2. 10 yrs 3. 20 yrs 4. 30 yrs

Q24. In a river, two identical boats start moving upstream and downstream respectively.
Speed of current = 3 km/hr
Speed of boat in still water = 15 km/hr

Find the separation after 12 minutes.

1. 3.6 km 2. 5.6 km 3. 6.0 km 4. 7.2 km

Q25. Identify the next term:

ace, fhj, kmo, ___

1. npr

2. rtv

3. prt

4. uwy

Q26. Match List I with List II.

List I (Theories)
A. Episteme and Doxa
B. Potential and Actual being
C. Vyavaharika and Paramarthik
D. Rational and Actual

List II (Philosophers)
I. Aristotle
II. Hegel
III. Sankara
IV. Plato

choose the correct answer

1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

2. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

3. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

4. A-IV, B-I, C-IIi, D-II

Q27. What type of cognition is beyond the ambit of perception?

1. Anumiti

2. Upamiti

3. Nirvikalpaka pratyaksa

4. Savikalpaka pratyaksa

Q28. “Golden mountain is fiery because it is smoky”.

Which fallacy is committed?

1. Asraya siddhi

2. Svarupa siddhi

3. Vyapyatva siddhi

4. Savyabhichara

Q29. In a proposition which is particular affirmative:

1. Subject distributed but predicate not distributed

2. Neither subject nor predicate distributed

3. Both subject and predicate distributed

4. Subject undistributed but predicate distributed

Q30. Match the concepts with schools.

A. Abhava
B. Anupalabdhi
C. Apoha
D. Syadvada

Schools:
I. Jainism
II. Buddhism
III. Vedanta
IV. Nyaya

choose the correct answer

1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

2. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

4. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Study the data table and answer Q.31 to Q.35.

The following table shows the maximum marks of each subject inside the bracket and percentage of marks obtained by seven students in six different subjects in the exam.

Student   Com. Sc.     Che        Phy.    Geo.   His.    Math

               (150)          (130)     (120)  (100)   (50)     ( 40)

Piyush      90              50         90       60        70         80

Gaurav    100             80         80        40        80         70

Mayank    90             60        70          70         90         70

Vimal       80              65        80          80        60         60

Vikas        80              65        85         95        50         90

Varun        70             75        65          85       40         60

Ashish        65           35        50         77         80          80

Q31. What are the average percentage of marks (%) obtained by all the seven students in Physics?

1. ~82.42

2. ~74.28

3. ~86.24

4. ~95.14

Q32. The number of students who obtained 60% and above marks in all subjects is:

1. 4

2. 5

3. 2

4. 1

Q33. What is the aggregate of marks obtained by Mayank in all the six subjects?

1. 432

2. 456

3. 460

4. 440

Q34. In which subject is the overall percentage the best?

1. Computer Science

2. Chemistry

3. Math

4. Physics

Q35. What is the overall percentage of Ashish?

1. 54%

2. 68%

3. 59.66%

4. 63%

Q36. What is the full form of the abbreviation ISP?

1. International Service Provider

2. Internet Service Provider

3. Internet Software Provider

4. Internet Service Product

Q37. What is the name for a web page address?

1. Directory

2. Folder

3. Domain

4. URL

Q38. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): Privacy and security of user data is at stake on the Internet.

Reason (R): No steps are being taken by the user for the security and privacy of data.

Choose the correct answer:

1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is correct but R is not correct

4. A is not correct but R is correct

Q39. Which of the following is NOT a system software?

1. Compiler

2. Operating System

3. Application Software

4. Editor

Q40. Which of the following is excluded from the domain of Artificial Intelligence?

1. Computer Vision

2. Machine Learning

3. Deep Learning

4. Text

Q41. Which of the following are Millennium Development Goals (MDGs)?

A. Eradicating extreme poverty and hunger
B. Improving maternal health
C. Addressing climate change
D. Promoting gender equity and empowerment of women
E. Ensuring energy security for all

Choose the correct answer:

1. A, B, C and D only

2. A, C, D and E only

3. A, B, C, D and E

4. A, B and D only

Q42. Identify the correct sequence of energy sources in increasing order of heat of combustion.

A. Methane
B. Natural fats and oils
C. Dry wood
D. Green wood

Choose the correct answer.

1. A, B, C, D

2. D, C, B, A

3. D, B, C, A

4. D, C, A, B

Q43.Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): Polluted rivers with very high values of Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) may produce a foul smell.

Reason (R): Anaerobic bacteria produce sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen.

Choose the correct answer:

1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

3. A is correct but R is not correct

4. A is not correct but R is correct

Q44. High hazard wastes may contain:

A. Pathogens
B. Radioactive wastes
C. Non-reactive substances
D. Corrosive substances

Choose the correct answer:

1. A, B and D only

2. A, B, C and D

3. B and D only

4. A, B and C only

Q45. In case of which of the following primary pollutants, the man-made contributions to global emissions is more compared to natural sources?

1. Sulphur dioxide

2. Nitric oxide

3. Methane

4. Carbon dioxide

Q46.

Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): Systems of education which are place-specific, time-specific and person-specific are said to be formal and are created by laid down law and procedures.

Reason (R): Open universities and open schools are examples of a formal system of education.

Choose the correct answer.

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are false

3. A is true but R is false

4. A is false but R is true

Q47. In which of the Universities named below were correspondence courses initiated in 1962?

1. University of Madras

2. University of Bombay

3. University of Calcutta

4. University of Delhi

Q48. Which of the following areas of liberal education at the higher level in feudal society of Europe were classified under Trivium?

A. Geometry
B. Astronomy
C. Grammar
D. Logic
E. Rhetoric

Choose the correct answer.

1. A, B, C

2. B, C, D

3. C, D, E

4. A, D, E

Q49. Which of the following categories of colleges is primarily intended for creating work-ready manpower on a large scale?

1. Autonomous college

2. Community college

3. Agriculture college

4. Technical college

Q50. Match List I with List II.

List I (Levels of academic freedom in higher education instructions)
A. Personal level
B. Professional level
C. Institutional level
D. Societal level

List II (Concerns at their levels)
I. Democratic functioning in the higher education system and believing each individual worthy of attention
II. Standard of behaviour and ethics we adopt and develop for ourselves
III. Values which influence and cushion the operation of higher education
IV. Exercising personal and professional values within the concept of the higher education institution

choose the correct answer

1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

2. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

4. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Answer Key

Q.1 – *
Q.2 – 3
Q.3 – 1
Q.4 – 1
Q.5 – 4

Q.6 – 3
Q.7 – 1
Q.8 – 1
Q.9 – 3
Q.10 – 2

Q.11 – 4
Q.12 – 3
Q.13 – 1
Q.14 – 2
Q.15 – 4

Q.16 – 4
Q.17 – 1
Q.18 – 4
Q.19 – 4
Q.20 – 1

Q.21 – 4
Q.22 – 4
Q.23 – 2
Q.24 – 3
Q.25 – 3

Q.26 – 4
Q.27 – 3
Q.28 – 1
Q.29 – 2
Q.30 – 3

Q.31 – 2
Q.32 – 3
Q.33 – 4
Q.34 – 1
Q.35 – 3

Q.36 – 2
Q.37 – 4
Q.38 – 1
Q.39 – 3, 4
Q.40 – 4

Q.41 – 4
Q.42 – 2
Q.43 – 3
Q.44 – 1
Q.45 – 1

Q.46 – 3
Q.47 – 4
Q.48 – 3
Q.49 – 2
Q.50 – 1