Q.1 At open classroom environment marked by sharing and caring by teachers and students in their interchanges will be most helpful for which level of teaching?

  1. Memory level

  2. Understanding level

  3. Reflective level

  4. Autonomous development level

Q.2 Which will be the correct hierarchical sequencing for the following types of learning?
A. Discrimination learning
B. Sign learning
C. Concept learning
D. Problem solving learning
E. Rule learning

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. B, A, C, E and D

  2. A, B, E, D and C

  3. D, C, B, A and E

  4. C, D, E, A and B

Q.3 Which of the following intellectual characteristics in a teacher need nurturing in order to accomplish subjects well-being leading to effectiveness in motivating and inspiring students of college level education?

  1. Cognitive intelligence related

  2. Emotional intelligence related

  3. Social intelligence related

  4. Spiritual intelligence related

Q.4 Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Instructional technology is a network of techniques pressed into service for realizing instructional objectives.

Statement II : Computer-aided instruction can replace the teacher if the goal of education is personality development.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

  4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

Q.5 Which of the characteristics in classroom teaching behavior as given below will be classified as a part of formative assessment?

A. The teacher asks question to elicit classification from students.
B. The teacher specifies the level of mastery attained by students.
C. The teacher prompts and probes the students while making presentation.
D. The teacher pauses for a few seconds, looks at students and asks questions.
E. The teacher indicates performance criteria and given judgemental values.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, B and C only

  2. A, C and D only

  3. B, C and D only

  4. C, D and E only

Q.6 Which of the following research forms, aims primarily at putting to use the theoretical advances with an eye on exploring the potential for generalizability?

  1. Fundamental research

  2. Evaluative research

  3. Action research

  4. Applied research

Q.7 In a research project using ‘triangulation’ approach which of the following can form part of the investigation on studying “parental participation, attitude and problems”?

A. Interview
B. Observation
C. Tests
D. Sociometry
E. Focused group discussion

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B) and (C) only

  2. (C), (B) and (D) only

  3. (C), (D) and (E) only

  4. (A), (B) and (E) only

Q.8 In which method of research the independent variable is manipulated to observe and measure its effect on dependent variable?

  1. Ex-post facto method

  2. Experimental method

  3. Case study method

  4. Historical method

Q.9 In which of the following there is considerable scope for violation of research ethics?

A. Problem formulation
B. Data interpretation
C. Hypothesis making
D. Reporting of research results
E. Using research tools prepared by others

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B) and (C) only

  2. (B), (C) and (D) only

  3. (B), (D) and (E) only

  4. (C), (D) and (E) only

Q.10 Given below are two statements:

Statement I : A research hypothesis is a conjectural statement postulating the relationship among variables with a view to advance solution to the problem of study.

Statement II : The non-probability sampling procedures provide the best estimate for the population parameter.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

  4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from Q.11 to Q.15 :

Initially, most children want to do well in school. But the student who has experienced consistent failure in the classroom tends to lower his own expectations concerning school success. He may direct his energy outside the classroom to athletics or youth gangs or to other areas where he can experience the satisfaction of success. The student who has been negatively evaluated in the classroom rationalizes that school is not important to him because he believes it is impossible for him to succeed there.

If a student is to continue to expect to do well in school, he needs to receive some positive evaluations for his academic performance. If an individual is to develop a positive concept of himself as a student, he needs to perform competently and to receive evaluations that he interprets to be positive within his own frame of reference. When the student is perceived as a less competent learner, forces are set in motion that reduce the chances that his potential will be developed to its fullest extent in school. The other students and his teachers may come to view him as having less potential than he really has. The academic goals he sets for himself and those that are set for him by his well-intentioned teachers may not sufficiently challenge his true abilities. A student may divert his own personal resources to non-academic areas because he believes that success in academic subjects is not open to him. If he does not apply his maximum efforts to learning school subjects, he may fail to acquire some of the skills and knowledge he needs as a basis for further learning.

Q.11 A student, who is consistently poor performer in the class room, will

  1. Strive hard to achieve his goals later

  2. Lower the image of the school in his eyes

  3. Aggressively compete with classmates outside the school

  4. Not expect much success in the school

Q.12 What is the likely impact of negative evaluation of the student in the classroom?

  1. He will be jealous of his classmates

  2. He will divert his attention to other fields for success

  3. He will perform well in athletics

  4. He gets into a state of depression

Q.13 Positive evaluation of a student’s academic performance will help him to

  1. perform well in future also

  2. take up athletics

  3. make friends

  4. be considered as a role model by other students

Q.14 When a student is considered as less than competent what can be the outcome?

  1. He may feel that his potential is not properly assessed

  2. He may think that others do not want him to succeed in academics

  3. Others in the school may rate his potential less than what he actually possesses

  4. He may divert his personal resources to non-academic areas

Q.15 The gist of the passage is that

  1. A less competent student should seek his future in areas other than academics

  2. He should put maximum efforts to have a successful academic performance

  3. Teachers should motivate him to use his personal resources properly

  4. He should evaluate his own skills and knowledge as against teacher’s expectations

Q.16 Poor listening by the audience leads to

  1. Appreciating the speaker

  2. Wild imaginations

  3. Inaccurate inferences

  4. Disrespecting the speaker

Q.17 Match List I with List II

List I (Authors)
A. Aristotle
B. Shannon and Weaver
C. Wilbur Schramm
D. David Berlo

List II (Communication concepts)
I. SMCR–Sender, Message, Channel–receiver–Model
II. Circular Communication
III. Speaker–Centred Communication
IV. Top-down, Linear communication

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

  2. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

  3. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

  4. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

Q.18 Identify the chronological sequence of the following countries opting for educational broadcasting channels

A. Great Britain
B. The United States
C. Australia
D. India
E. Canada

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (B), (A), (E), (C), (D)

  2. (C), (D), (E), (A), (B)

  3. (D), (E), (B), (C), (A)

  4. (A), (B), (D), (E), (C)

Q.19 Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Free and unlimited use of non-verbal cues enhances the communicative aspects of classroom teaching.

Statement II : A pleasant persons of the teacher enlivens the classroom eco-system.

In the light of the above Statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

  3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

  4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

Q.20 The consequences of effective classroom communication are

A. Enhanced expectations of teacher from students
B. Learning as satisfying pursuit
C. Increased promotional prospects for teachers

D. enabling students to achieve goals

E. Positive learning outcomes

choose the correct answer

  1. A, B, C

  2. B, C, E

  3. C, D, E

  4. B, D, E

Q.21 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?
U, O, I, ?, A

  1. M

  2. G

  3. B

  4. E

Q.22 A and B play Football, Cricket and Hockey.
B and C play Hockey and Badminton.
C and D play Badminton and Tennis.
D and A play Football, Cricket and Tennis.


Find out the correct answer among the following:

A. C does not play Cricket
B. B and D both play Tennis
C. A plays football, Cricket and Badminton
D. A, B and D play Football and Cricket
E. Except B all play Tennis

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B) and (E) only

  2. (A), (D) and (E) only

  3. (A), (B) and (C) only

  4. (C), (D) and (E) only

Q.23 If the day before yesterday was Friday, what will be the third day after the day after tomorrow?

  1. Friday

  2. Saturday

  3. Thursday

  4. Wednesday

Q.24 Match the pairs in List I with the pairs of analogies in List II

List I
A. Lizard : Reptile
B. Tennis : Court
C. Bull : Cow
D. Botany : Plant

List II
I. Skating : Rink
II. Haematology : Blood
III. Eagle : Bird
IV. Wizard : Witch

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

  2. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

  3. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

  4. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Q.25 What part of 1/12 is 3/8?

  1. 3/7

  2. 4/3

  3. 1/12

  4. 9/2

Q.26 Rajiv, Sanjiv and Vijay join a running race.
The distance is 1500 meters. Rajiv beats Sanjiv by 30 meters and Vijay by 100 meters.
By how much could Sanjiv beat Vijay over the full distance if they both ran as before?

  1. 72.3 meters

  2. 71.5 meters

  3. 71.4 meters

  4. 70.2 meters

Q.27 Given below are two statements:

Statement I : If you know the length of two sides of a right angled triangle then the length of the third side cannot be found.

Statement II : The internal angles of a triangle add upto 180°.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. Both Statement I and statement II are true

  2. Both statement I and statement II are false

  3. Statement I is correct but statement II is false

  4. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true

Q.28 The given equation becomes correct after interchanging two signs. One of the four alternatives under it specifies the interchange of signs in the equation which when made will make the equation correct. Find the correct alternative?

9 + 5 ÷ 4 × 3 − 6 = 12

  1. + and −

  2. ÷ and −

  3. + and ×

  4. ÷ and ×

Q.29 Find the odd one out in following sequence:
1, 5, 14, 30, 50, 55, 91

  1. 14

  2. 30

  3. 50

  4. 55

Q.30 “Fat Krishnadatta eats wither during day or night, Fat Krishnadatta does not eat during day, therefore fat Krishnadatta eats during night”.
The above is an example of which type of inference?

  1. Comparision

  2. Verbal testimony

  3. Negation

  4. Implication

Q.31 The next two terms of the progression as 60, 30, 20, 15 are:

  1. 10 and 5

  2. 4 and 2

  3. 10 and 8

  4. 12 and 10

Q.32 If 5472 → 9, 6342 → 6, 7584 → 6 and 9237 → P, then P is (→ means implies)

  1. 2

  2. 3

  3. 4

  4. 5

Q.33 In an examination it is required to get 36% of maximum marks to pass. A student got 90 marks and was declared fail by 9 marks. Calculate maximum marks

  1. 200

  2. 275

  3. 300

  4. 225

Q.24 The simple interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years at the rate of 6% per annum comes to Rs. 300. The compound interest at the same rate, for the same time and on the same sum of money would be:

  1. Rs. 310

  2. Rs. 308

  3. Rs. 307

  4. Rs. 309

Q.25 Two cities P and Q are 360 km apart from each other. A car goes from P to Q with a speed of 40 km per hour and returns back to P with a speed of 50 km per hour. What is the average speed of the car?

  1. 45 km per hour

  2. 48 km per hour

  3. 50 km per hour

  4. 55 km per hour

Q.36 In computers, a DVD-ROM is :

  1. An optical storage media and it can be written many times

  2. A magnetic storage media and it can be written only once

  3. An optical storage media and it can be written only once

  4. A magnetic storage media and it can be written many times

Q.37 With regard to computer memory, which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?

A. Cache memory is ‘volatile’ memory
B. Magnetic memory is ‘volatile’ memory
C. Flash memory is ‘volatile’ memory
D. RAM is ‘volatile’ memory

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A) and (B) only

  2. (D) only

  3. (A) and (D) only

  4. (C) and (D) only

Q.38 The Recycle Bin is an area in Windows OS that contains files deleted from the :
A. Hard drive
B. Pen drive
C. CD-ROM

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A) only

  2. (A) and (B) only

  3. (B) and (C) only

  4. (A) and (C) only

Q.39 Identify the correct order for the following computer memories on the basis of increasing memory access time (from low to high).

A. Registers
B. Main Memory
C. Secondary Memory
D. Cache Memory

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (C), (D), (B)

  2. (A), (D), (B), (C)

  3. (C), (B), (D), (A)

  4. (B), (D), (A), (C)

Q.40 Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Minimum number of bits required to store any 3-digit decimal number is 10

Statement II : The data in a digital computer is stored in terms of bits/bytes where one Petabyte is equal to 2^50 bits

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. Both statement I and statement II are true

  2. Both statement I and statement II are false

  3. Statement I is true and statement II is false

  4. Statement I is false and statement II are true

Q.41 India has huge Thorium reserve, a potential source of nuclear energy. This thorium reserve is mainly confined in the

  1. Rocks of Chhota Nagpur Plateau

  2. Muds of Sunderban delta

  3. Coastal sands of Kerala sea

  4. Sands of Thar desert

Q.42 Identify the objectives specific to Sustainable Development Goals among the following :
A. Responsible consumption and production
B. Life on land
C. Improving material health
D. Ensuring environmental sustainability
E. Reduced inequality

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B) and (E)

  2. (A), (C), (D) and (E)

  3. (B), (C), (D) and (E)

  4. (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)

Q.43 Given below are two statements: One is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R :

Assertion A : Emissions from diesel vehicles are relatively less harmful to human health in comparison to petrol vehicles.

Reason R : Emissions of hydrocarbons and carbon monoxide are inherently very low from diesel vehicles.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

  3. A is correct but R is not correct

  4. A is not correct but R is correct

Q.44 Given below are two statements: One is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R :

Assertion A : Solar ponds store solar energy in the form of heat.

Reason R : Solar ponds contain water with definite gradient of salt concentration.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

  3. A is correct but R is not correct

  4. A is not correct but R is correct

Q.45 Which of the following sectors contributed least to the global carbon dioxide emissions in the year 2014 as per IPCC report?

  1. Transportation

  2. Agriculture and forest land use

  3. Industry

  4. Utility (Electricity and Heat Production)

Q.46 What is the correct decreasing order of research paper publications among the following BRICS countries?
A. India
B. China
C. South Africa
D. Russia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, B, C, D

  2. B, D, A, C

  3. B, A, D, C

  4. B, A, C, D

Q.47 MHRD, Government of India, initiative ‘e-Shodh Sindhu’ provides students and researches access to

  1. Indian Ph.D thesis in electronic form

  2. e-journals

  3. Plagiarism software

  4. Open source software for training in analytical techniques

Q.48 Which of the following ancient educational institutions was situated at the banks of river Ganga?

  1. Nalanda University

  2. Pushpagiri University

  3. Vikramshila University

  4. Takshashila University

Q.49 As per National Skills Qualifications Framework (NSQF), undergraduate B.Voc. degree programme requires completion of how many credits of Course Work

  1. 60 Credits

  2. 80 Credits

  3. 120 Credits

  4. 180 Credits

Q.50 MHRD, Government of India, Scheme ‘ARIIA’ stands for

  1. Atal Ranking of Institutions on Innovation Achievements

  2. Atal Research Initiative on Innovation and Academics

  3. Academic Ranking of Indian Institutions Achievements

  4. Atal Ranking of Indian Institutions Achievements

Answer Key

Q.1 – 3
Q.2 – 1
Q.3 – 2
Q.4 – 3
Q.5 – 2

Q.6 – 4
Q.7 – 4
Q.8 – 2
Q.9 – 3
Q.10 – 3

Q.11 – 4
Q.12 – 2
Q.13 – 1
Q.14 – 3
Q.15 – 2

Q.16 – 3
Q.17 – 3
Q.18 – 1
Q.19 – 4
Q.20 – 4

Q.21 – 4
Q.22 – 2
Q.23 – 1
Q.24 – 3
Q.25 – 4

Q.26 – 3
Q.27 – 4
Q.28 – 2
Q.29 – 3
Q.30 – 4

Q.31 – 4
Q.32 – 2
Q.33 – 2
Q.34 – 4
Q.35 – 1

Q.36 – 3
Q.37 – 3
Q.38 – 1
Q.39 – 2
Q.40 – 3

Q.41 – 3
Q.42 – 1
Q.43 – 4
Q.44 – 1
Q.45 – 1

Q.46 – 1
Q.47 – 2
Q.48 – 3
Q.49 – 4
Q.50 – 1